Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately so you can see your weak areas, plus an overall score against the pass mark, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Ohio exam you need 70%.
The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 138 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
| Delivered by | PSI |
|---|---|
| Official exam | Ohio Life, Accident and Health Insurance Agent Series 11-35 |
| Questions | 150 questions (includes unscored items; scored/unscored split not stated) |
| Time | 2.5 hours |
| Passing score | 70% |
| Exam fee | $49 per attempt |
| Pre-licensing or eligibility | Required: 20 hours Life and 20 hours Accident & Health (both course completion certificates must be presented on test day) |
| Book your exam | test-takers.psiexams.com/ohins |
Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with PSI before you book.
Evergreen is a $49 practice question bank, not a pre-licensing course. Here is how it stacks up against the courses and other banks candidates usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Kaplan, ExamFX, XCEL and others.
Ohio licenses a combined Life, Accident & Health producer (the PSI Series 11-35 exam) - 150 questions, 2 hours 30 minutes, 70% to pass.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Ohio Revised Code for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Ohio bank contains 1042 questions (general insurance plus Ohio law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 138 questions in all.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 13 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Life: Types of Policies, Life: Provisions, Riders & Options, Life: Underwriting, Premium & Taxation, Annuities & Retirement, Health: Plans, Provisions & Disability, Health: Medicare, Social Insurance & LTC, General Regulation & Ethics, Ohio — Producer Licensing, Appointment & CE, Ohio — Unfair Trade Practices & Claims, Ohio — Life Insurance & Annuity, Ohio — Accident & Health, Ohio — HMO & Managed Care and Ohio — Regulation, Guaranty & Fraud. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 23 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
An annuitant has a $30,000 basis and a $120,000 expected return. Of each $6,000 payment, the taxable amount is:
Why: Exclusion ratio = 30,000/120,000 = 25%; $1,500 excluded, $4,500 taxable.
An 'own-occupation' definition in a disability income policy pays benefits when the insured cannot perform:
Why: Own-occupation pays if the insured cannot do their own job, even if able to work elsewhere; it is more generous than any-occupation.
Policy dividends paid on a participating life policy are best described as:
Why: Dividends are a non-guaranteed return of overpaid premium and are generally not taxable until they exceed the total premiums paid.
If an insured dies by suicide within the policy's stated suicide period, the insurer will generally:
Why: During the suicide period (commonly 2 years), the insurer refunds premiums rather than paying the face amount.
An inflation protection feature in a long-term care policy:
Why: Inflation protection increases the daily/monthly benefit over time so coverage keeps pace with rising long-term care costs.
A payor benefit rider, common on juvenile policies, provides that:
Why: If the adult paying premiums on a child's policy dies or becomes disabled, the payor benefit rider waives the premiums until the child reaches a stated age.
When a natural person applies for a resident insurance agent license in Ohio, the declaration in the application is made under penalty of what?
Why: § 3905.05(A) requires a declaration under penalty of refusal, suspension, or revocation of the license that the statements are true, correct, and complete.
A witness served with a superintendent's subpoena under section 3901.04 refuses to testify about a matter he may lawfully be asked about. What recourse does Ohio law provide?
Why: Section 3901.04(B)(2) provides that in the case of disobedience or refusal to testify, the court of common pleas where venue is appropriate, on the superintendent's application, may compel obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt.
If an annuitant dies during the accumulation phase of a deferred annuity, the contract typically pays the beneficiary:
Why: Most deferred annuities guarantee the beneficiary the greater of premiums paid or current account value if the owner dies before annuitization.
Under Ohio law, a qualifying reservist's life policy shall not lapse for nonpayment of premiums during the period of military service and during what additional period afterward?
Why: Section 3915.053(B) protects the policy during military service and the two-year period subsequent to its end.
Section 3923.03 generally requires a policy to insure only one person, but it permits a family policy issued to the head of a family covering members of one family. Which group is expressly listed as includable?
Why: Section 3923.03(C) lists husband, wife, dependent children, any children under the age of nineteen, and other dependents living with the family.
An insured stops paying premiums and wants the largest amount of continued coverage for the shortest time, with no further premiums. The nonforfeiture option is:
Why: Extended term keeps the full face amount in force as term for a limited period; reduced paid-up gives a smaller amount but for life.
Under the section 1753.28 'prudent layperson' standard, an 'emergency medical condition' is judged by symptoms severe enough that a prudent layperson with average knowledge of health and medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate attention to result in which outcome?
Why: Section 1753.28(A)(1) defines an emergency medical condition by reference to a prudent layperson reasonably expecting that the absence of immediate attention could place health in serious jeopardy, seriously impair bodily functions, or seriously dysfunction an organ or part.
Group long-term disability policies often define total disability as inability to perform one's 'own occupation' for an initial period, after which the definition changes to:
Why: Many LTD plans use own-occupation for an initial period (e.g., 24 months) then shift to an any-occupation standard for continued benefits.
A 52-year-old withdraws $8,000 of gain from a nonqualified annuity. The IRS penalty (besides income tax) is:
Why: Premature distributions before 59½ incur a 10% penalty: 10% × $8,000 = $800.
A temporary insurance license is most commonly issued to:
Why: Temporary licenses (no exam) let someone service an existing book when a producer dies, becomes disabled, or enters military service.
Under § 3923.04, every standard policy provision must generally be set out in the policy in what manner?
Why: Section 3923.04 requires the standard provisions to appear in the words in which they appear in the section, individually preceded by the statutory caption or appropriate captions approved by the superintendent.
Which of the following groups is expressly authorized for blanket sickness and accident insurance under § 3923.13?
Why: Section 3923.13(D) authorizes a blanket policy issued in the name of a volunteer fire department or first aid or similar volunteer group covering all of its members.
An annuitant has an $80,000 basis and a $200,000 expected return. Of each $10,000 payment, the taxable amount is:
Why: Exclusion ratio = 80,000/200,000 = 40%; $4,000 excluded, $6,000 taxable per payment.
Under § 3901.21(F) and (M), the prohibition on 'unfair discrimination' among individuals of the same class draws what distinction between life and non-life policies?
Why: Section 3901.21(F) addresses unfair discrimination among individuals of the same class and equal expectation of life for life insurance and annuities, while division (M) addresses individuals of the same class and essentially the same hazard for insurance other than life.
To keep a producer license active, most states require the producer to:
Why: License renewal generally requires periodic continuing education; specific hours and cycles are set by each state.
The optional 'illegal occupation' provision allows an insurer to deny a claim for a loss that results from the insured:
Why: This optional provision excludes losses sustained while the insured is committing a felony or engaged in an illegal occupation.
Which definition does the Ohio Health Insuring Corporation Law assign to 'closed panel plan'?
Why: Section 1751.01(E) defines a closed panel plan as a health care plan that requires enrollees to use participating providers. The first option describes an open panel plan under division (S).
The three primary factors an insurer uses to calculate a life insurance premium are:
Why: Premiums are built from expected mortality, assumed interest earnings, and the insurer's expenses (the expense loading).
An insurer incorporated in another U.S. state but doing business in this state is a(n) ____ insurer.
Why: Domestic = incorporated in this state; foreign = another state; alien = another country.
A disability policy has a 14-day elimination period and a $200 weekly benefit. If the insured is disabled for 10 weeks, the total paid is:
Why: The first 2 weeks (14-day elimination) pay nothing; 8 weeks × $200 = $1,600.
A 'bed reservation' benefit in a long-term care policy:
Why: A bed reservation benefit keeps paying the facility (for a limited number of days) to hold the insured's bed while they are temporarily hospitalized.
A child is covered under both parents' health plans. Under the 'birthday rule,' the primary plan is the one belonging to the parent whose:
Why: The birthday rule makes primary the plan of the parent whose birthday (month and day) comes first in the calendar year.
Medicaid differs from Medicare in that Medicaid is:
Why: Medicaid is a means-tested (needs-based) program jointly funded by the states and federal government; Medicare is primarily age/disability-based.
Which type of care is generally NOT covered by Medicare?
Why: Medicare generally does not pay for long-term custodial care (help with daily living); it covers hospital, physician, and hospice care.
Under a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer:
Why: The employer pays a deductible bonus equal to the premium; the employee owns the policy and reports the bonus as taxable income.
Under the 'reduction of premium' dividend option, the dividend is:
Why: This option uses the dividend to lower the out-of-pocket premium owed at the next due date.
A non-business-entity agent who is no longer engaged in the business of insurance is granted inactive status. What is one effect of inactive status?
Why: § 3905.16(C)(2) provides that a person granted inactive status is exempt from continuing education requirements.
A characteristic of an insurable risk is that the loss must be:
Why: Insurable losses must be definite, measurable, fortuitous, predictable across a large pool, and not catastrophic to the insurer.
A split-dollar life insurance arrangement is best described as:
Why: In split-dollar, the employer and employee share premium costs and policy benefits under an agreement.
A noncontributory group life plan (employer pays the entire premium) generally requires:
Why: Because the employer pays all premiums, noncontributory plans require 100% participation to avoid adverse selection.
An applicant who regularly scuba dives in caves is most likely to be:
Why: Hazardous avocations increase risk; insurers respond with a rating, an exclusion rider, or a higher premium.
A client wants to move funds from an old annuity into an LTC insurance policy tax-free. Under Section 1035, this is:
Why: Section 1035 permits tax-free exchanges from an annuity to a qualified long-term care policy.
A cash refund annuity guarantees that, if the annuitant dies early, the beneficiary receives:
Why: A cash refund pays the beneficiary, in a lump sum, the difference between premiums paid and payments already received; an installment refund pays it out in continued installments.
Under a presumptive disability provision, the insured is presumed totally disabled (and paid full benefits) upon:
Why: Presumptive disability pays full benefits for specified losses (sight, hearing, speech, or two limbs) even if the insured is able to work.
In a variable life insurance policy, the investment risk on the cash value is borne by:
Why: In variable life the cash value is held in separate accounts the owner directs, so the policyowner assumes the investment risk (a minimum death benefit is usually guaranteed).
Which term life policy has a face amount that declines over the term and is commonly used to cover a mortgage balance?
Why: Decreasing term's face amount drops over time (premium usually level), matching a declining debt such as a mortgage.
The 'facility of payment' provision in a health policy allows the insurer to:
Why: Facility of payment lets the insurer pay a relative or other appropriate person (up to a limit) when no beneficiary is named or the beneficiary cannot give valid release.
An inflation protection rider on a long-term care policy:
Why: Inflation protection raises the benefit (simple or compound) over the years so the coverage keeps pace with the rising cost of care.
The elimination period in a disability income policy functions as:
Why: The elimination (waiting) period is a 'time deductible'; a longer elimination period lowers the premium because the insurer pays for fewer short claims.
Key person disability insurance provides benefits to:
Why: Key person disability is owned by and paid to the business to cover losses and the cost of replacing an essential employee who becomes disabled.
Within how many days after the final disposition of an administrative action taken against the agent in another jurisdiction must an Ohio insurance agent notify the superintendent?
Why: Section 3905.22(A) requires an agent to notify the superintendent of any administrative action by another jurisdiction or licensing agency within THIRTY days after the final disposition, including a copy of the order.
Under the 'Change of beneficiary' provision in § 3923.04(L), unless the insured has made an irrevocable designation, the consent of the beneficiary is required for which of the following?
Why: Section 3923.04(L) reserves the right to change beneficiary to the insured and provides that the beneficiary's consent is not requisite to surrender, assignment, change of beneficiary, or other changes, unless an irrevocable designation was made.
A family deductible provision in a health plan provides that:
Why: A family deductible caps total deductible exposure: when the combined family expenses reach the stated aggregate, the deductible is met for all members.
Social Security disability benefits use a strict definition: the inability to engage in:
Why: SSDI requires inability to perform any substantial gainful activity (not just one's own occupation), expected to last at least 12 months or result in death.
In a fixed annuity, the investment risk is borne by:
Why: A fixed annuity guarantees principal and a minimum interest rate, so the insurer bears the investment risk.
The primary purpose of the Medical Information Bureau (MIB) is to:
Why: The MIB is a nonprofit information exchange whose coded reports help member insurers identify errors, omissions, or misrepresentations on applications.
The distinction between accident and sickness coverage is that an 'accident' involves:
Why: Accident coverage applies to sudden, unforeseen injuries; sickness coverage applies to illness or disease, and many policies cover both.
A structured settlement annuity is typically used to:
Why: A structured settlement funds court/insurance settlement payments as periodic income; amounts for physical-injury claims are generally tax-free.
Under § 3901.213(G), an insurer may conduct a raffle or drawing without it being an unlawful inducement only if all the listed conditions are met, including that the raffle:
Why: Section 3901.213(G) permits raffles/drawings to the extent permitted by state law only if there is no financial cost to entrants, no obligation to purchase insurance, the raffle is open to the public, and it is not unfairly discriminatory.
Accelerated death benefits paid to a terminally ill insured are generally:
Why: They are generally received income-tax-free, similar to a death benefit, when the insured is terminally ill.
'Controlled business' refers to insurance a producer writes:
Why: Controlled business is coverage on the producer's own interests; states limit it so licenses aren't obtained merely to self-deal.
Under Ohio's prohibited-provisions statute, a life policy may NOT limit the time within which an action may be commenced after the cause of action accrues to less than:
Why: Section 3915.09(B) prohibits a provision limiting to less than five years the time to commence an action after the cause accrues.
Unlike a conditional receipt, a binding (temporary) receipt provides:
Why: A binding receipt gives immediate temporary coverage for a stated period regardless of insurability; a conditional receipt requires the applicant to prove insurable.
Under the Ohio 'illegal occupation' optional provision, an insurer is not liable for a loss to which a contributing cause was what?
Why: Section 3923.05(I) lets a policy provide that the insurer is not liable for any loss to which a contributing cause was the insured's commission of or attempt to commit a felony, or being engaged in an illegal occupation.
A $500,000 death benefit is paid to a surviving spouse. For federal estate tax, the amount qualifies for the:
Why: Transfers to a surviving (citizen) spouse qualify for the unlimited marital deduction, passing estate-tax-free.
Under a group insurance plan, the certificate of insurance is:
Why: The master contract is issued to the group sponsor; each covered member receives a certificate as evidence of their coverage.
Stranger-originated life insurance (STOLI) arrangements are prohibited because they lack:
Why: STOLI is initiated for investors with no insurable interest in the insured, which is illegal.
In an indexed universal life policy, the interest credited to cash value is:
Why: Indexed UL credits interest linked to an external index (e.g., S&P 500) with a cap/participation rate and a guaranteed minimum floor.
A modified-premium whole life policy charges:
Why: Modified whole life has reduced premiums during the early years (often the first five) followed by higher level premiums for life.
Group life insurance is most commonly written as:
Why: Employer group life is typically annually renewable term; individual evidence of insurability is usually not required up to a guaranteed-issue limit.
For the variable life-variable annuity line, what additional qualification does Ohio Rev. Code § 3905.06 require for issuance?
Why: § 3905.06(A)(1)(e) requires FINRA registration after passing the Series 6, 7, 63, 66, or another approved FINRA examination.
Under Ohio law, using a policy name or title that misrepresents the true nature of the policy is:
Why: Section 3911.23 prohibits using any name or title of a policy or class of policies which misrepresents the true nature thereof.
A Medicare Part B late enrollment penalty generally:
Why: Delaying Part B without creditable coverage adds a lifetime surcharge (about 10% per 12 months of delay) to the premium.
To continue coverage for a newborn beyond the initial period when an Ohio policy requires an added premium, notification of birth and payment must be furnished to the insurer within how many days after birth?
Why: Section 3923.26 permits a policy to require that notification of birth and payment of any required additional premium be furnished within THIRTY-ONE days after the date of birth to continue coverage beyond that period.
An investor with no relationship to the insured arranges and funds a policy intending to profit from the death benefit. This is:
Why: STOLI lacks insurable interest and is illegal; policies must be founded on a genuine insurable interest at inception.
Insurers usually limit disability income benefits to about 60–70% of the insured's gross income in order to:
Why: Benefits are capped below full income (and are tax-free when individually paid) so the insured retains a financial incentive to recover and return to work.
An insured with a $100,000 policy dies during the grace period while owing a $200 premium. The beneficiary receives:
Why: Coverage stays in force during the grace period; the claim is paid with the overdue premium deducted: $100,000 − $200 = $99,800.
A blanket health policy is designed to cover:
Why: A blanket policy covers a constantly changing group of unnamed people defined by a relationship (airline passengers, students, sports teams).
The 'Entire contract; changes' standard provision required by § 3923.04(A) states that no change in the policy is valid until approved by whom?
Why: Section 3923.04(A) provides that no change is valid until approved by an executive officer of the insurer and indorsed on or attached to the policy; no agent has authority to change the policy.
If a policyowner stops paying premiums and makes no nonforfeiture election, most policies automatically apply:
Why: Extended term is the usual automatic (default) nonforfeiture option, keeping the full face amount in force as term for a limited period.
An employee, at the direction of an insurer, accepts a renewal premium (not the initial premium) and performs purely clerical duties without soliciting. Under Ohio law, is a license required?
Why: § 3905.03(A)(9) exempts employees who, at the insurer's direction, accept premiums other than the initial premium and perform clerical or ministerial duties.
What is the stated purpose of the Ohio Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association chapter?
Why: Section 3956.03 states the purpose is to protect specified persons, subject to limitations, against failure in the performance of contractual obligations due to impairment or insolvency of the issuing member insurer.
Under section 1751.18, an HIC is prohibited from canceling or failing to renew a subscriber's coverage because of which of the following?
Why: Section 1751.18(A)(1) prohibits cancellation or nonrenewal because of any health status-related factor. By contrast, division (B) permits cancellation for fraud or intentional misrepresentation.
Which permanent policy features flexible premiums and an adjustable death benefit?
Why: Universal life allows the owner to vary premium payments and adjust the death benefit (subject to underwriting); cash value earns a declared interest rate.