Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately so you can see your weak areas, plus an overall score against the pass mark, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand. The general section is the larger part of most state exams; most states require about 70% to pass.
The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 96 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Evergreen is a $49 practice question bank, not a pre-licensing course. Here is how it stacks up against the courses and other banks candidates usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Kaplan, ExamFX, XCEL and others.
It covers the national, general-knowledge portion shared by every U.S. state's Life and Accident & Health producer exam - the largest part of the test. It is ideal if your state is not yet one of our dedicated state exams, or to drill the core concepts before adding your state's law section.
It covers the general portion, not your state's insurance-law section. Every state exam also has a state-specific part. If your state is listed on our home page, use that exam for full coverage; otherwise this gives you a strong head start on the majority of the material.
Most states require about 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question is original, written to the standard NAIC-model general content outline shared across states, with a plain-English explanation.
The full general bank contains 657 questions across all the core Life & Health topics, with written explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 96 questions in all.
$49, one time, for lifetime access - and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 7 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Life: Types of Policies, Life: Provisions, Riders & Options, Life: Underwriting, Premium & Taxation, Annuities & Retirement, Health: Plans, Provisions & Disability, Health: Medicare, Social Insurance & LTC and General Regulation & Ethics. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 23 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A pre-existing condition provision in a health policy refers to a condition for which the insured:
Why: A pre-existing condition is one for which the insured received diagnosis, advice, or treatment within a stated period before the coverage took effect.
A state insurance guaranty association exists to:
Why: Guaranty associations protect policyholders by covering claims (within statutory limits) when a member insurer becomes insolvent; their existence may not be used in advertising or sales.
In an equity-indexed annuity using the 'annual point-to-point' crediting method, interest is based on the index value:
Why: Annual point-to-point compares the index at the beginning and end of the year; high-water mark and monthly averaging are alternative methods.
Business overhead expense (BOE) disability insurance reimburses a disabled owner for:
Why: BOE covers ongoing business expenses (rent, utilities, employee salaries) — not the owner's personal income.
Credit disability insurance is designed to:
Why: Credit disability covers the loan payments (often monthly) while the insured borrower is disabled; credit life instead pays off the balance at death.
In an indexed universal life policy, the interest credited to cash value is:
Why: Indexed UL credits interest linked to an external index (e.g., S&P 500) with a cap/participation rate and a guaranteed minimum floor.
Pledging a life insurance policy to a bank as security for a loan is a:
Why: A collateral assignment transfers limited rights to a lender as security; an absolute assignment transfers all ownership rights.
'Medicaid spend-down' refers to the process by which an individual:
Why: Spend-down is depleting excess income/assets (e.g., on care) to meet Medicaid's means test for eligibility.
The Medical Information Bureau (MIB) helps insurers:
Why: The MIB is a member-supported database of coded medical information; an insurer may use it as an alert but cannot decline coverage solely on an MIB report.
A client wants to move funds from an old annuity into an LTC insurance policy tax-free. Under Section 1035, this is:
Why: Section 1035 permits tax-free exchanges from an annuity to a qualified long-term care policy.
Medicare Part D prescription drug coverage is provided:
Why: Part D drug coverage is offered by private insurers approved by Medicare; beneficiaries enroll in a stand-alone or Advantage drug plan.
Nonforfeiture provisions in an annuity guarantee the owner:
Why: Annuity nonforfeiture laws guarantee a minimum cash surrender value, protecting the owner's accumulated funds.
A mortgage protection (mortgage redemption) policy is usually written as decreasing term, and its death benefit is paid to:
Why: Mortgage protection is owned by the borrower and pays the family/estate (who then choose to pay off the loan); credit life, by contrast, pays the creditor directly.
Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policies sold in most states are:
Why: Medigap plans are standardized (lettered A–N in most states), so the same lettered plan offers the same core benefits regardless of insurer.
The 'extended term' nonforfeiture option uses the policy's cash value to:
Why: Extended term (the automatic default on many policies) uses the net cash value to keep the full face amount in force as term insurance for as long as it will buy.
When a sale involves replacing an existing life policy, the producer must:
Why: Replacement rules require delivering a replacement notice/disclosure and following defined procedures.
Most state replacement regulations require that, when replacing an existing life policy, the producer:
Why: Replacement rules require disclosure: the producer provides a replacement notice and gives the existing insurer an opportunity to conserve the policy.
An accident-only policy provides benefits for:
Why: Accident-only coverage is limited to losses caused by accidental injury; sickness is excluded, making it a limited (supplemental) policy.
A 401(k) plan is a qualified plan that primarily allows employees to:
Why: A 401(k) is a defined-contribution plan funded by pre-tax salary deferrals (Roth option aside), commonly with an employer match.
If a policyowner surrenders a cash-value life policy, the taxable amount is:
Why: On surrender, the gain (cash value minus the cost basis of premiums paid) is taxed as ordinary income.
A $2,000 covered expense goes to two plans; the primary pays $1,500. Under coordination of benefits, the secondary pays up to:
Why: COB caps total payment at the actual expense; the secondary pays the remaining $500.
An employee has $100,000 of employer-paid group term life. The amount subject to imputed income is:
Why: The first $50,000 is tax-free; the cost of the remaining $50,000 is imputed taxable income.
A policy has an accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider. The insured dies of a heart attack. The beneficiary receives:
Why: Double indemnity pays an additional amount only for accidental death; death from illness pays the regular face amount.
A Medicare beneficiary wants a lower Medigap premium and is willing to use a provider network. The product is:
Why: Medicare SELECT is a Medigap policy that uses a network of providers in exchange for a lower premium.
A statement on an application that is believed true to the best of the applicant's knowledge is a:
Why: A representation is believed true to the applicant's best knowledge; a warranty is guaranteed to be literally true. Most life applications are treated as representations.
A 'market conduct' examination by regulators reviews an insurer's:
Why: Market conduct exams assess how an insurer treats consumers — marketing, underwriting, policyholder service, and claims handling.
Custodial care under a long-term care policy refers to:
Why: Custodial care assists with activities of daily living (bathing, dressing, eating) and does not require medical training; skilled care does.
A return-of-premium (ROP) term policy:
Why: ROP term refunds the premiums paid if the insured survives the level term period.
A final expense (burial) policy is typically:
Why: Final expense is a modest permanent (whole life) policy designed to cover burial and end-of-life expenses, often with simplified underwriting.
A dread disease (specified disease) policy provides benefits:
Why: A specified/dread disease policy is a limited policy covering only the named condition(s); it is supplemental, not comprehensive coverage.
A modern whole life policy 'matures' (endows) when the:
Why: At the maturity age (commonly 121, formerly 100), the cash value equals the face amount and the policy endows, paying the face to a living insured.
'Defamation' in insurance regulation refers to:
Why: Defamation is making, publishing, or circulating false statements that are maligning, especially about the financial condition of an insurer.
An individual health policy that the insurer cannot cancel and on which it cannot raise the premium before a stated age is:
Why: Noncancelable guarantees both renewal and a fixed premium to a stated age; guaranteed renewable allows class premium increases.
An insured loses sight in both eyes. Under a presumptive disability provision, the insurer:
Why: Presumptive disability presumes total disability for specified losses (sight, hearing, speech, two limbs), paying full benefits regardless of work ability.
The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) primarily:
Why: The NAIC is a coordinating body of state regulators that drafts model laws and promotes uniformity; it has no direct regulatory authority of its own.
A Medicare Advantage plan (Part C):
Why: Part C (Medicare Advantage) plans are offered by private insurers approved by Medicare and combine Part A and B (usually Part D) coverage.
In an equity-indexed annuity, the 'participation rate' determines:
Why: The participation rate sets the share of the index increase credited; a cap may further limit it, and a floor (often 0%) prevents loss.
The 'reduced paid-up' nonforfeiture option uses the policy's cash value to:
Why: Reduced paid-up uses the net cash value as a single premium to purchase a smaller amount of fully paid-up permanent insurance; extended term instead keeps the full face for a limited period.
A producer who holds client premiums must keep them in a fiduciary capacity, which means the producer must:
Why: As a fiduciary, the producer holds premiums in trust for the insurer and must not commingle them with personal funds (doing so is commingling).
Under a conditional receipt given with a life application and the initial premium, coverage takes effect:
Why: A conditional receipt provides coverage retroactive to the application/exam date if the applicant proves insurable, provided premium accompanied the application.
To reinstate a lapsed life insurance policy, the insurer generally requires the owner to:
Why: Reinstatement typically requires proof of insurability, payment of back premiums plus interest (and loan repayment), within the allowed period; a new contestable period begins.
A life insurance policy that fails the federal '7-pay test' is classified as a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC), meaning:
Why: A MEC keeps a tax-free death benefit, but living distributions are taxed gains-first (LIFO) with a 10% penalty before 59½.
Preadmission certification is a managed-care control that requires:
Why: Preadmission (precertification) requires the plan's approval of a planned hospital stay before admission for it to be covered.
A 'period certain only' annuity option pays income:
Why: Period-certain-only pays for a set number of years; if the annuitant dies early, payments continue to a beneficiary for the remainder.
Which nonforfeiture option uses the cash value to continue the full face amount as term insurance for as long as the cash value will buy?
Why: Extended term keeps the full face amount as term coverage for a limited period; it is often the automatic default.
A single-premium immediate annuity (SPIA) begins income payments:
Why: An immediate annuity starts paying within one payment interval (e.g., within a month) of the lump-sum purchase.
In an equity-indexed annuity, the 'cap rate' is the:
Why: The cap is the ceiling on credited interest; the participation rate sets the share of the gain and the floor sets the minimum.
A plan has a $500 deductible and 75/25 coinsurance. On a $4,500 covered bill, the insured pays:
Why: Deductible $500 + 25% of the remaining $4,000 ($1,000) = $1,500.
Variable universal life (VUL) insurance combines:
Why: VUL merges universal life's premium and death-benefit flexibility with variable separate accounts; the owner bears the investment risk.
A collateral assignment of a life insurance policy transfers:
Why: A collateral assignment is a partial, temporary transfer; the lender is entitled only to the amount of the debt, with the balance going to the named beneficiary.
Eligibility for Medicaid is based primarily on:
Why: Medicaid is a means-tested, joint federal-state program for low-income individuals; eligibility varies by state.
A contributory group plan, in which employees share in the premium cost, generally requires participation of at least:
Why: Contributory plans typically require about 75% participation to limit adverse selection; noncontributory (employer-paid) plans require 100%.
A plan has a $1,000 deductible and 60/40 coinsurance. On a $6,000 covered bill, the insured pays:
Why: Deductible $1,000 + 40% of the remaining $5,000 ($2,000) = $3,000.
An employee leaving a group life plan may convert to an individual policy:
Why: The conversion privilege lets a departing employee convert to individual coverage without evidence of insurability, typically within 31 days.
Survivorship (second-to-die) life insurance is most commonly used to:
Why: It pays at the second death and is widely used to fund estate taxes and costs.
A settlement option that continues income to two people until the second one dies is the:
Why: The joint and survivor option pays as long as either of two people is alive.
A joint and survivor annuity covering a couple continues full or reduced payments:
Why: A joint and survivor annuity pays as long as either annuitant lives, often reducing to a percentage for the survivor.
Mental health parity requirements generally provide that a group plan's mental health benefits must be:
Why: Parity rules require that financial requirements and treatment limits on mental health/substance use benefits be no more restrictive than those on medical/surgical benefits.
An insured dies with a $20,000 policy loan outstanding. The beneficiary receives:
Why: An outstanding loan plus interest is deducted from the death benefit paid to the beneficiary.
A 50-year-old withdraws $10,000 of gain from a nonqualified deferred annuity. Besides ordinary income tax, the IRS penalty is:
Why: A premature distribution before 59½ incurs a 10% penalty: 10% × $10,000 = $1,000, on top of ordinary income tax on the gain.
When a convertible term policy is converted using the 'attained age' method, the new permanent premium is based on:
Why: Attained-age conversion sets the premium at the insured's current age (no back premium); original-age conversion uses the issue age but requires paying the difference in premiums.
When a child is covered under both parents' health plans, the primary plan is usually determined by the:
Why: The birthday rule makes primary the plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year.
An alien insurer is one that is:
Why: Alien = incorporated in another country; domestic = this state; foreign = another U.S. state.
Insurers usually limit disability income benefits to about 60–70% of the insured's gross income in order to:
Why: Benefits are capped below full income (and are tax-free when individually paid) so the insured retains a financial incentive to recover and return to work.
Compared with individual insurance, group insurance generally features:
Why: Group coverage spreads risk over many lives, so it is typically cheaper and issued with little or no individual evidence of insurability.
An insured dies in the third policy year and the insurer discovers a non-fraudulent misstatement on the application. The insurer must:
Why: After the two-year contestable period, the insurer cannot contest the policy for non-fraudulent misstatements, so the claim is paid.
The 'legal actions' uniform provision in a health policy provides that the insured:
Why: The insured cannot bring suit until 60 days after filing proof of loss, and not more than 3 years afterward.
Under the interest-only settlement option, the insurer:
Why: Interest-only leaves the principal with the insurer and pays out just the interest; the principal is paid later.
A 'change of plan' provision in a life policy lets the owner:
Why: A change-of-plan provision permits converting to another policy plan (e.g., term to whole life), with premium and possibly evidence adjustments.
Before recommending an annuity, a producer learns the client needs the money within a year for living expenses. The producer should:
Why: Suitability rules require matching the product to the client's situation; an annuity (with surrender charges and a long horizon) is unsuitable for funds needed immediately.
An endowment policy is distinguished by the fact that it:
Why: An endowment pays the face amount either at the insured's death or upon reaching the maturity date while living; modern tax rules limit their use.
Under a group insurance plan, the certificate of insurance is:
Why: The master contract is issued to the group sponsor; each covered member receives a certificate as evidence of their coverage.
Under federal law, group health plans that cover dependent children must generally allow coverage to continue until the child reaches age:
Why: The Affordable Care Act requires plans offering dependent coverage to extend it to adult children up to age 26.
A rider that pays an additional amount (often double the face) if the insured dies in an accident is the:
Why: The accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider adds a benefit for accidental death.
An owner assigned a policy to a lender as collateral for a $30,000 loan. At the insured's death (face $200,000, loan still $30,000), the lender receives:
Why: Under a collateral assignment, the lender is paid only the amount of the debt ($30,000); the balance goes to the named beneficiary.
An employee gets married, a HIPAA 'special enrollment' event. The employee may:
Why: HIPAA special enrollment lets employees enroll after qualifying life events (marriage, birth, loss of other coverage) without waiting for open enrollment.
Social Security disability benefits use a strict 'any occupation' definition and require a waiting period of:
Why: SSDI uses a strict any-occupation definition and has a 5-month elimination period before benefits begin.
Increasing term insurance is characterized by a death benefit that:
Why: Increasing term's face amount grows over time (often used with return-of-premium or to track inflation); decreasing term does the opposite.
Under IRC Section 1035, a tax-free exchange is permitted FROM a life insurance policy TO:
Why: 1035 allows tax-free exchanges from life to life, life to annuity, and life/annuity to LTC; an annuity may NOT be exchanged into life insurance tax-free.
An applicant classified as a 'preferred' risk:
Why: Preferred risks (e.g., ideal build, nonsmoker) present lower-than-average mortality and qualify for the lowest premiums; standard and substandard pay more.