Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately so you can see your weak areas, plus an overall score against the pass mark, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand. The general section is the larger part of most state exams; most states require about 70% to pass.
The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 125 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Evergreen is a $49 practice question bank, not a pre-licensing course. Here is how it stacks up against the courses and other banks candidates usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Kaplan, ExamFX, XCEL and others.
It covers the national, general-knowledge portion shared by every U.S. state's Property & Casualty producer exam - property, casualty, auto, homeowners, commercial lines, workers' compensation and federal regulation. It is the bulk of the exam and is ideal before you add your state's law section.
It covers the national portion, not your state's insurance-law section. Every state P&C exam also has a state-specific part. As we add dedicated state P&C exams, use yours for full coverage; until then this gives you a strong head start on the majority of the material.
Most states require about 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question is original, written to the standard national P&C content outline and the standard ISO policy forms, with a plain-English explanation.
The full general P&C bank contains 708 questions across all the core property and casualty topics, with written explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 125 questions in all.
$49, one time, for lifetime access - and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 8 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: P&C — General Insurance Concepts, P&C — Insurance Basics, P&C — Dwelling & Homeowners, P&C — Personal & Commercial Auto, P&C — Commercial Property, BOP & Marine, P&C — Commercial General Liability & Specialty, P&C — Workers' Compensation and P&C — Other Lines, Flood & Federal Regulation. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 23 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A PAP insured rents a car on vacation and damages it. Which coverage most directly responds to the damage to the rented car?
Why: Damage to a non-owned auto in the insured's custody, such as a rental, is covered under Part D at the broadest physical damage coverage on the policy.
A statement that is guaranteed to be true and becomes part of the contract is a:
Why: A warranty is a statement that is guaranteed true and becomes part of the policy; its breach can void coverage.
The policy period condition specifies:
Why: The policy period sets the effective and expiration dates/times defining when coverage applies.
The Homeowners Policy program differs from the Dwelling Policy primarily because it:
Why: Homeowners policies are package policies bundling Section I property coverages with Section II liability coverages, whereas the basic Dwelling Policy is monoline property.
A warehouse roof collapses under the weight of accumulated snow. The insured has only the Basic Causes of Loss form. Is the collapse from snow weight covered?
Why: Weight of snow, ice, or sleet is added in the Broad and Special forms; the Basic form does not include it, so the loss would not be covered.
NFIP flood insurance provides which type of loss settlement for personal property (contents)?
Why: Contents under the NFIP are always settled on an actual cash value basis, while only the building under certain conditions may be settled at replacement cost.
An employer with worse-than-average claims experience for its class would most likely have an experience modification factor that is:
Why: A debit mod above 1.00 reflects worse-than-average loss experience and increases the employer's premium relative to the class average.
Nonconcurrency refers to a situation where:
Why: Nonconcurrency occurs when policies covering the same exposure do not have matching coverage terms, potentially leaving gaps or disputes.
The Automatic Increase in Insurance (inflation guard) endorsement on a dwelling policy does what?
Why: The inflation guard / automatic increase endorsement raises the dwelling limit at set intervals to help the amount of insurance keep up with rising construction costs.
Under the BACF, the limit of insurance for liability is typically written as:
Why: The Business Auto Coverage Form most commonly uses a combined single limit for liability per accident.
A recreational vehicle (motorhome) used for travel is most appropriately insured under:
Why: RVs require specialized policies that blend automobile coverages (liability, physical damage) with personal-property and living-quarters coverages.
Defense costs under the standard CGL are:
Why: Under the standard CGL, defense costs are paid in addition to the limits as part of Supplementary Payments (unlike many specialty 'defense-within-limits' policies).
Which perils does the Broad Causes of Loss form ADD beyond the Basic form?
Why: The Broad form adds falling objects; weight of snow, ice, or sleet; water damage; and includes a limited collapse provision.
In an insurance contract, the consideration given by the insured is:
Why: The insured's consideration is the premium plus the representations made in the application; the insurer's consideration is its promise to pay covered losses.
A customer slips on a wet floor in the insured's store and is hurt. This is most clearly a claim under:
Why: A slip-and-fall on the insured's premises is a Coverage A bodily injury (premises and operations) claim.
Business property on the residence premises is subject to a Coverage C special limit of approximately:
Why: Property used for business while on the residence premises carries a special limit (commonly $2,500) under Coverage C.
A driver with multiple at-fault accidents and DUIs is repeatedly declined by standard auto insurers. The mechanism most likely to provide required liability coverage is:
Why: Drivers unable to obtain coverage voluntarily are placed through the automobile assigned-risk plan, the residual market for auto insurance.
A business that performs incidental contracts and also assumes a railroad's liability in a sidetrack agreement has the assumed liability covered under the CGL because:
Why: Sidetrack agreements are listed insured contracts, so liability assumed under them is excepted from the contractual liability exclusion.
A defense holding that an injured party who contributed in ANY way to their own injury cannot recover damages is:
Why: Under pure contributory negligence, any fault by the plaintiff—even slight—bars recovery entirely.
The primary method of handling risk that insurance represents is:
Why: Insurance is fundamentally a transfer of the financial consequences of risk from the insured to the insurer.
PAP Part C provides protection when the insured is injured by:
Why: Part C — Uninsured/Underinsured Motorists coverage pays damages the insured is legally entitled to recover from an owner/operator of an uninsured or underinsured vehicle.
In insurance, exposure refers to:
Why: Exposure is a condition presenting a possibility of loss; it may or may not result in an actual loss.
Under PAP Part D, the deductible:
Why: The deductible is the portion of a physical damage loss the insured pays out of pocket before the insurer pays the remainder.
A captive insurer is:
Why: A captive is an insurance company formed and owned by a parent company (or group) chiefly to insure the parent's own risks.
The Special Causes of Loss form is best characterized as:
Why: The Special form is open-perils: it covers risk of direct physical loss unless specifically excluded or limited, shifting the burden of proof to the insurer.
Under comparative negligence (pure form), a plaintiff found 30% at fault for a $100,000 injury recovers:
Why: Pure comparative negligence reduces recovery by the plaintiff's percentage of fault: $100,000 − 30% = $70,000.
The principle that allows insurers to predict losses more accurately as the number of similar exposure units increases is the:
Why: The law of large numbers states that the larger the number of similar exposures, the more predictable actual loss experience becomes.
A large corporation sets aside its own funds in a formal program to pay for its own anticipated losses rather than buying insurance. This is:
Why: Self-insurance is a formal retention program in which an entity sets aside funds to pay its own losses instead of transferring the risk.
Under the BACF, the most common deductible structure for physical damage is:
Why: Business auto physical damage applies deductibles separately to each covered auto for each loss, with separate amounts often for comprehensive and collision.
Under the PAP, a trailer owned by the named insured is:
Why: Owned trailers are included as covered autos for liability; physical damage on a trailer generally requires it to be scheduled.
A personal articles floater (scheduled personal property) is most often classified within which line of insurance?
Why: Floaters covering jewelry, furs, fine arts, and similar items are written as inland marine coverage.
An Installation floater covers:
Why: An Installation floater covers materials and equipment during transit, storage, and installation until the work is accepted, common for HVAC or fixture installers.
A building with exterior walls, floors, and roof made of combustible wood materials is classified as:
Why: Frame construction has combustible exterior walls (typically wood), giving it the highest fire-rate classification and risk.
Personal property losses under most Homeowners forms are settled on what basis unless replacement cost is endorsed?
Why: Coverage C personal property is settled on an actual cash value basis (replacement cost minus depreciation) unless replacement cost coverage is added by endorsement.
Choosing a high deductible and paying small losses out of pocket is an example of which method of handling risk?
Why: Retention means accepting responsibility for some or all of a loss, such as through deductibles or self-insurance.
A 'host liquor liability' exposure differs from a liquor liability business exposure in that host liquor liability:
Why: Host liquor liability (serving alcohol incidentally, not as a business) is generally NOT excluded by the CGL, unlike the liquor business exposure.
Pet insurance is generally classified as a form of:
Why: Pet insurance reimburses veterinary expenses for illness or injury and is offered as a specialty personal-lines product.
Under the PAP, fire damage to the covered auto while parked in a garage is covered under:
Why: Fire is a peril insured under Other Than Collision (comprehensive) coverage in Part D.
A worker can return to light-duty work at reduced hours and lower pay while still recovering. The wage-loss benefit during this period is classified as:
Why: Temporary partial disability (TPD) compensates for the wage loss when a recovering worker can perform some work but earns less than before the injury.
An insured who intentionally sets fire to insured property to collect on the policy demonstrates:
Why: A moral hazard exists when a person's dishonesty or tendency to cause a loss, such as arson for profit, increases the chance of loss.
Under the BACF, the "care, custody, or control" exclusion in liability coverage means the policy does NOT cover:
Why: BACF liability excludes property owned, transported, or in the care, custody, or control of the insured; such exposures require other coverage (e.g., cargo or property).
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) requires financial institutions, including insurers, to:
Why: GLBA's privacy provisions require notice of information-sharing practices and, in many cases, allow consumers to opt out of having their nonpublic personal financial information shared with nonaffiliated third parties.
The maximum NFIP building coverage limit available for a single-family residential structure under the regular program is:
Why: The NFIP caps building coverage for a single-family dwelling at $250,000, with a separate $100,000 limit available for contents.
The Homeowners loss settlement (coinsurance) provision generally requires the dwelling to be insured to at least what percentage of replacement cost to receive full replacement-cost settlement on a partial loss?
Why: The replacement-cost loss settlement condition requires the dwelling to be insured to at least 80% of full replacement cost at the time of loss.
Which of the following best describes the trade-off at the heart of the workers' compensation 'grand bargain'?
Why: In the historic compromise, workers gained certain, prompt, no-fault benefits while employers gained protection from most tort lawsuits and predictable, limited liability.
A hazard is best defined as:
Why: A hazard is a condition that increases the chance that a peril will occur or the severity of a resulting loss.
A loss payable clause in a property policy primarily protects:
Why: A loss payable clause directs claim payments to a designated party (such as a lender) holding an interest in the covered property.
Under a Homeowners HO-4 (renters) policy, the Coverage A (Dwelling) limit is typically:
Why: Because tenants do not own the structure, HO-4 has no meaningful Coverage A; the emphasis is on Coverage C personal property and Section II liability.
Medical benefits under most workers' compensation laws are generally:
Why: Medical benefits for a compensable injury are typically unlimited, covering reasonable and necessary treatment with no dollar cap and no cost to the employee.
For property and casualty insurance, insurable interest must exist:
Why: For P&C insurance, insurable interest must be present both when the policy is issued and at the time of loss.
For a renter (HO-4), which Section I coverage is the primary coverage?
Why: For tenants, Coverage C — Personal Property is the centerpiece of Section I, since the renter does not own the building.
Which document in a CPP contains information common to all coverage parts, such as the named insured, policy period, and premium?
Why: The Common Policy Declarations identify the named insured, mailing address, policy period, business description, and the coverage parts that apply.
In a typical Homeowners policy, Coverage C (Personal Property) is provided as a percentage of Coverage A equal to about:
Why: Coverage C is commonly set at 50% of the Coverage A limit, though this percentage can be adjusted by endorsement.
When converting from an occurrence form to a claims-made form, 'prior acts' coverage refers to:
Why: Prior acts (nose) coverage, established by setting the retroactive date earlier, covers occurrences before inception but on/after that date.
The CGL pollution exclusion generally bars coverage for:
Why: The pollution exclusion removes coverage for injury/damage from the release of pollutants, subject to limited exceptions.
Under PAP Part F, the policy territory generally includes:
Why: The policy territory is the U.S., its territories and possessions, Puerto Rico, and Canada; Mexico is generally not included.
In the Business Auto Coverage Form, covered auto designation symbols determine:
Why: Numbered symbols (1–9) entered next to each coverage in the Declarations define which categories of autos that coverage applies to.
A rating method that uses an individual risk's actual past loss experience to adjust its premium is:
Why: Experience or merit rating modifies premium based on the insured's own loss history, rewarding favorable experience.
In commercial trucking, a non-trucking ("bobtail") liability policy covers an owner-operator's tractor when it is:
Why: Non-trucking/bobtail liability covers the tractor when used outside the motor carrier's business, filling the gap when the carrier's policy does not apply.
Transportation expenses coverage under PAP Part D typically reimburses the insured for:
Why: Transportation expenses coverage pays temporary transportation (e.g., rental) costs following a covered Part D loss, subject to per-day and per-occurrence limits.
Some categories of workers (such as certain domestic, agricultural, or casual employees) may be excluded from mandatory WC coverage but can be covered if the employer chooses. This describes:
Why: Elective or exempt categories are those the law does not require to be covered, but the employer may elect to cover them voluntarily.
In Business Income coverage, the 'period of restoration' begins:
Why: Business income payments are subject to the standard 72-hour waiting period in the ISO form (CP 00 30): although measured from the direct physical loss, coverage does not begin paying until 72 hours after the loss.
What is the typical special limit for theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware under Coverage C?
Why: Theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware is commonly subject to a $2,500 special limit under Coverage C.
In the Homeowners program, the loss assessment additional coverage is most relevant to which insured?
Why: Loss assessment coverage helps pay an insured's share of an assessment charged by a homeowners or condo association for a covered loss to commonly owned property.
An insured increases jewelry coverage by scheduling items. Scheduled items differ from blanket Coverage C because they:
Why: Scheduled personal property is individually listed and valued, generally insured on a broader open-peril basis, often with no deductible and above Coverage C sublimits.
A reciprocal insurer is best described as:
Why: A reciprocal or interinsurance exchange is an unincorporated association of subscribers who exchange insurance among themselves, administered by an attorney-in-fact.
Compared with the standard CGL, professional liability and D&O policies most often pay defense costs:
Why: Many specialty/management liability policies use defense-within-limits, so defense costs reduce the amount available for settlements.
A building worth $250,000 has a 90% coinsurance requirement and is insured for $225,000. A $20,000 loss occurs (no deductible). The insurer pays:
Why: Required = 90% × $250,000 = $225,000. Insurance carried equals the requirement, so the full $20,000 loss is paid.
A medical professional wants protection against patient claims of negligent treatment. The correct policy is:
Why: Patient injury from professional treatment is excluded by the CGL and covered by medical professional liability (malpractice) insurance.
A policy designated as 'excess' over other coverage will:
Why: Excess coverage applies only after the underlying (primary) insurance limits have been used up.
The 'Damage to Premises Rented to You' coverage in the CGL applies to:
Why: This coverage (formerly fire legal liability) pays for damage to premises rented to the insured, with fire and other listed perils for premises rented for 7 or fewer consecutive days.
A business wants the broadest possible liability protection covering owned, hired, and non-owned autos under one symbol. Which symbol accomplishes this?
Why: Symbol 1, "Any Auto," is the broadest designation, covering owned, hired, and non-owned autos for liability.
In a Homeowners policy, neglect by the insured to use reasonable means to save property at and after a loss is:
Why: Neglect is listed among the exclusions; the insured must take reasonable steps to protect property, and damage from failing to do so is not covered.
Rating that relies on the underwriter's individual judgment when little statistical data exists is called:
Why: Judgment rating is used for unique or hard-to-classify risks where the underwriter sets the rate based on experience and judgment.
The PAP's out-of-state coverage provision does what when the insured travels to a state with higher required limits?
Why: The out-of-state provision raises the policy limits to the minimum amounts required by the other state's compulsory or financial responsibility law if they are higher.
Coverage C of the BPP applies to:
Why: Coverage C — Personal Property of Others covers property of others in the insured's care, custody, or control while at the described premises.
The Permitted Incidental Occupancies endorsement allows the insured to:
Why: This endorsement modifies the policy to permit a small, incidental business or office (such as a professional studio) on the residence premises.
The Homeowners fire department service charge additional coverage typically reimburses up to about:
Why: The fire department service charge additional coverage commonly reimburses up to $500 with no deductible when a fire department is called to save covered property.
A Supplemental Extended Reporting Period (supplemental tail) differs from the basic ERP in that it:
Why: The supplemental ERP requires an extra premium and a written request, providing an unlimited reporting window for covered occurrences.
When an insurer's actions lead an insured to believe a right exists, and the insurer is later prevented from denying that the right exists, the legal principle is:
Why: Estoppel prevents a party from asserting a right or fact inconsistent with a previous position when another party has relied on that position.