Evergreen Insurance Prep Life, Health & Property Exam Prep

Iowa Life & Health Insurance License, Practice Exams

Iowa Life and Accident & Health producer licensing (Pearson VUE, tested as two separate exams - Iowa has no combined Life & Health paper). General insurance knowledge plus Iowa insurance law (Iowa Code Title XIII and the Iowa Administrative Code chapter 191), authored from public-domain statutes.
Content last updated 29 September 2026

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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Iowa exam you need the passing score the Iowa Insurance Division sets — Iowa publishes no threshold anywhere, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark.

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Unlock the full question bank

The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 151 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.

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The real exam: key facts

Delivered byPearson VUE
Official examLife (12-IA-01) and Accident & Health (12-IA-02); separate exams
QuestionsLife: 77 scored + 10 pretest (general 50 + 5, Iowa 27 + 5); Accident & Health: 80 scored + 10 pretest (general 50 + 5, Iowa 30 + 5)
Time2 hours per exam
Passing scoreDetermined by the Iowa Insurance Division; no figure published
Exam fee$44 per exam
Book your examwsr.pearsonvue.com/testtaker/signin/SignInPage/IOWAINSURANCE?locale=en_US

Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Pearson VUE before you book.

Official sources

Frequently asked questions

How is the Iowa producer licensing exam structured?

Iowa has no combined Life & Health exam. Life (12-IA-01) and Accident & Health (12-IA-02) are two separate two-hour Pearson VUE exams: Life is 50 general plus 27 Iowa questions, Accident & Health is 50 general plus 30 Iowa, and in each case 15 of the Iowa questions are the block common to all lines. The Iowa Insurance Division sets the passing score and publishes no percentage anywhere - not in the Pearson VUE handbook, not in Iowa Code 522B.4, not in the rules - so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. The exam-length drill here is built to the larger of the two state sections, so a candidate sitting the Life paper practises a little more Iowa law than the real exam asks. This bank covers the Iowa law and the general insurance material for both lines. This page practises both exams together, so its full practice exam mixes the two lines and is not the length of either real exam; the exam facts card shows each one.

What score do I need to pass?

You need the passing score the Iowa Insurance Division sets — Iowa publishes no threshold anywhere, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.

Are these real exam questions?

No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Iowa Code, Title XIII for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Iowa bank contains 1050 questions (general insurance plus Iowa law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 151 questions in all.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.

Do I need to create an account?

No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

What topics does the Iowa Life & Health Insurance License question bank cover?

It is organised into 18 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Life: Types of Policies, Life: Provisions, Riders & Options, Life: Underwriting, Premium & Taxation, Annuities & Retirement, Health: Plans, Provisions & Disability, Health: Medicare, Social Insurance & LTC, General Regulation & Ethics, Iowa — Insurance Division & Commissioner, Iowa — Producer Licensing, Iowa — Continuing Education, Iowa — Insurance Trade Practices, Iowa — Life Insurance Companies & Provisions, Iowa — Replacement, Illustrations & Suitability, Iowa — Annuities, Variable Contracts & Viaticals, Iowa — Accident & Health Insurance, Iowa — Group Health & Continuation, Iowa — HMOs, Long-Term Care & Medicare Supplement and Iowa — Life & Health Guaranty Association. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.

When was this question bank last updated?

Last updated 29 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.

Sample Iowa Life & Health Insurance License practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

If a policyowner surrenders a cash-value life policy, the taxable amount is:

  1. The full death benefit that the policy would have paid out
  2. The cash value received that exceeds total premiums paid ✓
  3. Always zero, because life insurance proceeds are never taxable
  4. The entire cash value received, taxed fully as a capital gain

Why: On surrender, the gain (cash value minus the cost basis of premiums paid) is taxed as ordinary income.

A terminally ill insured accesses the accelerated death benefit for $40,000 on a $100,000 policy. At death, the beneficiary receives:

  1. $40,000, matching the amount already advanced
  2. $140,000 (the face amount plus the advance)
  3. $60,000 (the death benefit reduced by the advance) ✓
  4. $100,000, because an accelerated payment is treated as a policy loan

Why: The accelerated benefit advances part of the face amount; the death benefit is reduced accordingly: $100,000 − $40,000 = $60,000.

A child (children's) term rider added to a parent's life policy:

  1. Converts the parent's policy into a joint survivorship contract covering both parents and each child
  2. Pays a monthly income to the parent until each child turns 18
  3. Waives the parent's premiums while a covered child is hospitalized
  4. Provides level term coverage on the insured's children for a small added premium ✓

Why: A child term rider covers the insured's children under one rider, usually convertible to permanent coverage without evidence.

Show more sample questions with answers & explanations

An Iowa insurer is working out which of its products the life insurance illustration rules reach. Its book includes variable life insurance, individual and group annuity contracts, credit life insurance, a group whole life plan with certificates of $50,000, and individual policies with initial face amounts of $8,000. It also asks from when the rules run. What does IAC 191 chapter 14 provide?

  1. The rules apply to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except variable life insurance, individual and group annuity contracts, credit life insurance, and life insurance policies or certificates with initial face amounts of $10,000 or less - so only the group whole life certificates are within them. The rules are effective as of April 24, 2024, and apply to policies sold on or after February 1, 1997. ✓
  2. The rules apply to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except variable life insurance, individual and group annuity contracts, and credit life insurance - so the group whole life certificates and the $8,000 individual policies are both within them. There is no exclusion by face amount: an exclusion of that kind would leave the buyers of the smallest policies, who are the least able to evaluate a nonguaranteed projection for themselves, without the protection of the chapter, and the figure a candidate may remember belongs to the identification requirement for policy forms rather than to the scope rule. The rules are effective as of April 24, 2024, and apply to policies sold on or after that date.
  3. The rules apply to all group and individual life insurance policies and certificates except variable life insurance, individual and group annuity contracts, credit life insurance, and life insurance policies or certificates with initial face amounts of $10,000 or less - so only the group whole life certificates are within them. The rules are effective as of April 24, 2024, and apply only to policies sold on or after that date, a rule of practice having no application to a sale made before it existed.
  4. The rules apply to individual life insurance policies only; group policies and certificates are outside them, the chapter's protections running to the person who buys a policy rather than to a certificate holder under a contract bought by somebody else. The exclusions are variable life insurance, individual and group annuity contracts, credit life insurance, and policies with initial face amounts of $10,000 or less. The rules are effective as of April 24, 2024, and apply to policies sold on or after February 1, 1997.

Why: Rule IAC 191-14.3 is short and exhaustive: THESE RULES APPLY TO ALL GROUP AND INDIVIDUAL LIFE INSURANCE POLICIES AND CERTIFICATES EXCEPT: VARIABLE LIFE INSURANCE; INDIVIDUAL AND GROUP ANNUITY CONTRACTS; CREDIT LIFE INSURANCE; OR LIFE INSURANCE POLICIES OR CERTIFICATES WITH INITIAL FACE AMOUNTS OF $10,000 OR LESS. GROUP AND INDIVIDUAL, which the answer confining the rules to individual policies cuts to individual only, and note that the chapter runs on CERTIFICATES as well as policies - which is why 14.4 defines POLICYOWNER as THE OWNER NAMED IN THE POLICY OR THE CERTIFICATE HOLDER IN THE CASE OF A GROUP POLICY. FOUR exclusions, and the fourth is the face-amount one the answer with no face-amount exclusion argues away. Its reasoning is a good policy argument and it is not the rule; the $10,000 figure is in rule 14.3 and nowhere else in the chapter, so it cannot be relocated to the identification requirement in 14.5(1), which carries a DATE rather than an amount. On the stem's facts the $8,000 policies fall out and the $50,000 group certificates stay in. Rule 14.14 supplies the dates and they are the oddity of the chapter: THESE RULES ARE EFFECTIVE AS OF APRIL 24, 2024, AND APPLY TO POLICIES SOLD ON OR AFTER FEBRUARY 1, 1997. A rule taking effect in 2024 that reaches back twenty-seven years is exactly what a candidate reads past, and the answers applying the rules only to policies sold on or after April 24, 2024 collapse the two dates into one. The 1997 date is not arbitrary: it is the same date that appears in 14.5(1), under which FOR POLICY FORMS FILED AFTER FEBRUARY 1, 1997, THE ILLUSTRATION IDENTIFICATION SHALL BE MADE AT THE TIME OF FILING. Rule 14.1 states the purpose the chapter serves - to PROTECT CONSUMERS AND FOSTER CONSUMER EDUCATION, to ENSURE THAT ILLUSTRATIONS DO NOT MISLEAD PURCHASERS OF LIFE INSURANCE AND TO MAKE ILLUSTRATIONS MORE UNDERSTANDABLE, with insurers to ELIMINATE THE USE OF FOOTNOTES AND CAVEATS as far as possible. Rule 14.2 records the authority: IOWA CODE SECTION 507B.4.

The board of directors of the association comes to believe in good faith, from information reaching it, that a particular Iowa member insurer may be an impaired or insolvent insurer. It asks what it may do with that belief, whether it can compel an examination, and who bears the cost if one is made.

  1. The board may order an examination of the member insurer directly, the commissioner’s role being confined to designating the persons who conduct it; the cost is assessed against the member insurer examined in the same way as the cost of an ordinary financial examination; and the report is furnished to the board before it is released to the public so that the board may act on it.
  2. The board must refer the information to the commissioner but has no power to request an examination, that power belonging to the commissioner alone; if the commissioner examines, the cost falls on the member insurer examined; and the board learns the outcome only through the commissioner's report to it once the examination has been completed and made public.
  3. Upon majority vote the board shall notify the commissioner of the information, and upon majority vote it may request that the commissioner order an examination of the member insurer; the request is a request rather than a command, the cost of any examination is paid by the association, and the examination report is not released to the board before its release to the public. ✓
  4. Upon majority vote the board shall notify the commissioner and may request an examination, but only after it has first given the member insurer written notice of the information and an opportunity of not less than thirty days to respond; the cost is shared equally between the association and the member insurer; and the request is a public record from the moment it is filed with the commissioner.

Why: Iowa Code 508C.12(4) requires the board, upon majority vote, to notify the commissioner of any information indicating that a member insurer may be an impaired or insolvent insurer. Subsection 5 then lets the board, again upon majority vote, REQUEST that the commissioner order an examination of a member insurer which the board in good faith believes may be impaired or insolvent. The examination may be conducted as a national association of insurance commissioners examination or by persons the commissioner designates; “the cost of the examination shall be paid by the association”, which is the reverse of the ordinary rule for a financial examination and is the point the answers putting the cost on the member insurer get wrong; the report is treated as other examination reports are; and it “shall not be released to the board of directors prior to its release to the public”, though the commissioner must notify the board when the examination is completed. The request itself is kept on file by the commissioner but is not a public record pursuant to chapter 22 until the examination report is released to the public. The section’s other half runs the other way, from the commissioner to the board: subsection 1 requires the commissioner to notify other states’ commissioners within thirty days when a member insurer’s licence is revoked or suspended or a formal restricting order is made, to report such actions and any equivalent report from another state to the board with all significant details, to report reasonable cause believed from an examination that an insurer may be impaired or insolvent, and to furnish the board the national association of insurance commissioners’ insurance regulatory information system ratios, which the board must keep confidential until made public by the commissioner or other lawful authority. Subsections 3 and 6 let the board, on majority vote, make reports and recommendations on solvency matters and on the detection and prevention of insolvencies.

In which annuity does the owner bear the investment risk, with values held in separate accounts?

  1. Single-premium deferred fixed annuity
  2. Fixed annuity
  3. Immediate fixed annuity
  4. Variable annuity ✓

Why: A variable annuity's value depends on separate-account performance; the owner bears investment risk, and a securities license is required to sell it.

A multiple employer welfare arrangement (MEWA) allows:

  1. Insurers to avoid all state regulation of their group products
  2. Several small employers to pool together to provide group benefits ✓
  3. An individual to buy coverage directly from a reinsurance company
  4. One large corporation to self-insure all of its own employees alone

Why: A MEWA lets small employers band together to offer health and welfare benefits, gaining some advantages of a larger group.

Two resident Iowa producers want to renew without sitting through the ordinary programme of courses. The first holds life, health and property qualifications and proposes to take and pass the licensing examination for each qualification instead. The second holds a crop insurance line of authority and nothing else. What does IAC 191 chapter 11 allow each of them?

  1. The first may elect to comply with the continuing education requirements by taking and passing the appropriate licensing examination for each qualification held. The second need only demonstrate that any training and continuing education requirements imposed by the federal Risk Management Association have been completed, the federal requirements standing in the place of the state ones for a crop-only producer, so that no separate Iowa credit total applies and no ethics credit is required of such a producer, this being the reason the chapter lists a crop-only resident producer among the persons the rules do not apply to at all.
  2. Neither election is available to a resident producer who wishes to renew. The examination route was closed when the credit requirement was raised to 36 credits, so a producer holding life, health and property qualifications must complete those credits like anyone else, and a crop-only producer completes the same 36 credits as any other resident producer, the requirements imposed by the federal Risk Management Association being additional to the state ones rather than a substitute for any part of them.
  3. The first may elect to comply with the continuing education requirements by taking and passing the appropriate licensing examination for each qualification held. The second need only demonstrate that any training and continuing education requirements imposed by the federal Risk Management Association have been completed and that 18 credits of continuing education have been completed, three of which must be in the area of ethics. ✓
  4. The first may elect to comply with the continuing education requirements by taking and passing the appropriate licensing examination for any one of the qualifications held, a single examination discharging the whole term for a producer holding several lines. The second need only demonstrate that 18 credits of continuing education have been completed, three of which must be in the area of ethics; the training and continuing education requirements of the federal Risk Management Association are a matter between the producer and the federal programme and form no part of what the division asks to see on renewal.

Why: Two subrules of IAC 191-11.3 sit at the end of the rule and each opens a door. 11.3(7): A PRODUCER MAY ELECT TO COMPLY WITH THE CE REQUIREMENTS BY TAKING AND PASSING THE APPROPRIATE LICENSING EXAMINATION FOR EACH QUALIFICATION HELD BY THE PRODUCER. The words FOR EACH QUALIFICATION HELD are the point: a producer with three qualifications sits three examinations, and a single-examination shortcut is not in the rule. 11.3(8): A RESIDENT PRODUCER WHO ONLY HOLDS QUALIFICATION FOR A CROP INSURANCE LINE OF AUTHORITY NEEDS ONLY TO DEMONSTRATE THE FOLLOWING TO RENEW: THE PRODUCER HAS COMPLETED ALL TRAINING AND CONTINUING EDUCATION REQUIREMENTS IMPOSED BY THE FEDERAL RISK MANAGEMENT ASSOCIATION, IF ANY; AND THE PRODUCER HAS COMPLETED 18 CREDITS OF CONTINUING EDUCATION, 3 OF WHICH MUST BE IN THE AREA OF ETHICS. Both limbs, joined by AND. The answer relying on the federal requirements alone keeps the federal limb and drops the state one; the answer ignoring the federal requirements keeps the state limb and drops the federal one. Note the words IF ANY attached to the federal requirements - the rule does not assume there are any, and nothing is said here about what the Risk Management Association's requirements are. Note too what ONLY HOLDS QUALIFICATION FOR A CROP INSURANCE LINE means: a producer who holds crop and anything else is on the ordinary 36 credits from 11.3(1), and 18 is not a reduced general figure. The last clause of the answer relying on the federal requirements alone misreads the exclusion list: 11.1(3)'e' does take a crop-only resident producer outside the rules, but only one WHO COMPLIES WITH SUBRULE 11.3(8) - the exclusion is the doorway to the 18-credit route, not an escape from it. And the answer closing both elections is wrong twice, because both doors are open.

Backdating a life insurance policy is sometimes done to:

  1. Obtain a lower premium based on a younger age ✓
  2. Guarantee that the policy can never lapse for non-payment
  3. Avoid the need for any medical underwriting of the applicant
  4. Extend the contestable period well beyond the legal limit

Why: Backdating dates the policy to an earlier date so the insured qualifies at a younger age (and lower premium); states typically limit it to about six months.

An Iowa small employer with a poor claims history applies to a small employer carrier for coverage. The carrier would rather not take it. One of its employees was treated for a condition four months before her enrollment date; another is a late enrollee; a third had eighteen months of continuous coverage that ended fifty days ago. What does Iowa Code 513B.10 provide?

  1. A carrier that offers coverage in the small group market shall accept every small employer that applies and shall accept for enrollment every eligible individual who applies when first eligible, subject to the carrier's employer contribution rules and group participation rules. A network plan carrier may limit applicants to employers with eligible individuals who live, work or reside in the service area or deny coverage there for lack of capacity, and any carrier may deny for lack of financial reserves; in either case it may resume offering coverage as soon as the constraint has passed, no fixed period of abstention applying to a carrier that has acted uniformly. A preexisting condition exclusion turns on a six-month look-back ending on the enrollment date, runs not more than twelve months or eighteen for a late enrollee, and is reduced by creditable coverage continuous to a date not more than sixty-three days before the new coverage. A carrier is required to issue coverage to a self-employed individual who is already covered under an employer's plan, the guarantee of issue admitting of no exception of that kind anywhere in this state's small group market.
  2. A carrier that offers coverage in the small group market shall accept every small employer that applies and every eligible individual who applies when first eligible, subject to employer contribution and group participation rules; a network plan carrier may limit by service area or deny for lack of capacity, and any carrier may deny for lack of financial reserves, each denial carrying a one hundred eighty day bar on offering coverage in that market. A preexisting condition exclusion may relate only to a condition for which advice, diagnosis, care or treatment was recommended or received within the twelve-month period ending on the enrollment date, may extend not more than twenty-four months - thirty-six for a late enrollee - and is reduced by the aggregate of the periods of creditable coverage continuous to a date not more than sixty-three days before the new coverage. Genetic information is treated as a preexisting condition even where no diagnosis of the condition has been made, the look-back reaching what the carrier can learn of a risk as well as what has been treated; and the employee treated four months before her enrollment date may accordingly be excluded for up to twenty-four months.
  3. A carrier that offers coverage in the small group market shall accept every small employer that applies and shall accept for enrollment every eligible individual who applies during the period in which the individual first becomes eligible - though this does not preclude the carrier from establishing employer contribution rules or group participation rules. A network plan carrier may limit applicants to employers with eligible individuals who live, work, or reside in the service area, or deny coverage there on demonstrating a lack of capacity applied uniformly; and a carrier may deny coverage on demonstrating it lacks the financial reserves to underwrite more - in either case it may not offer coverage in that market or service area for one hundred eighty days. A preexisting condition exclusion may relate only to a condition for which advice, diagnosis, care or treatment was recommended or received within the six-month period ending on the enrollment date, may extend not more than twelve months - eighteen for a late enrollee - and is reduced by creditable coverage continuous to a date not more than sixty-three days before the new coverage. ✓
  4. A carrier may decline any small employer whose claims history it considers unacceptable, guaranteed issue in the small group market being confined to those employers the carrier has chosen to quote, though it must then accept for enrollment every eligible individual of an employer it has accepted, subject to its employer contribution and group participation rules. A network plan carrier may limit applicants to employers with eligible individuals who live, work or reside in the service area or deny coverage there for lack of capacity, and any carrier may deny for lack of financial reserves, in either case resuming after ninety days. A preexisting condition exclusion may relate only to a condition for which advice, diagnosis, care or treatment was recommended or received within the six-month period ending on the enrollment date, may extend not more than twelve months or eighteen months for a late enrollee, and is reduced by the aggregate of the periods of creditable coverage continuous to a date not more than sixty-three days before the new coverage, so the employee with eighteen months of coverage ending fifty days ago comes in clear of any exclusion at all.

Why: Iowa Code 513B.10 is the guaranteed issue section and the answer letting the carrier decline an employer on claims history denies its central sentence: A CARRIER THAT OFFERS HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE IN THE SMALL GROUP MARKET SHALL ACCEPT EVERY SMALL EMPLOYER THAT APPLIES FOR HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE AND SHALL ACCEPT FOR ENROLLMENT UNDER SUCH COVERAGE EVERY ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUAL WHO APPLIES FOR ENROLLMENT DURING THE PERIOD IN WHICH THE INDIVIDUAL FIRST BECOMES ELIGIBLE ... AND SHALL NOT PLACE ANY RESTRICTION WHICH IS INCONSISTENT WITH ELIGIBILITY RULES ESTABLISHED UNDER THIS CHAPTER. A poor claims history is not a ground for refusal; it is a rating question, and section 513B.4 caps how far it can move the price. Paragraph 'f' preserves the carrier's ability to set EMPLOYER CONTRIBUTION RULES OR GROUP PARTICIPATION RULES - which is why noncompliance with those rules is a nonrenewal ground under section 513B.5. Three narrow escapes follow. A NETWORK PLAN carrier may limit applicants to employers with eligible individuals who LIVE, WORK, OR RESIDE IN THE SERVICE AREA, or deny coverage within the service area on demonstrating to the applicable state authority that it WILL NOT HAVE THE CAPACITY TO DELIVER SERVICES ADEQUATELY to additional groups because of its obligations to existing contract holders, applied UNIFORMLY TO ALL EMPLOYERS without regard to claims experience or health status. Any carrier may deny coverage on demonstrating to the commissioner that it DOES NOT HAVE THE FINANCIAL RESERVES NECESSARY TO UNDERWRITE ADDITIONAL COVERAGE, again applied uniformly. Both escapes carry the same price, and the answer letting the carrier resume at once removes it: on denying for lack of capacity the carrier SHALL NOT OFFER COVERAGE IN THE SMALL GROUP MARKET WITHIN SUCH SERVICE AREA FOR A PERIOD OF ONE HUNDRED EIGHTY DAYS, and on denying for lack of reserves it shall not offer coverage in the small group market in this state FOR ONE HUNDRED EIGHTY DAYS ... OR UNTIL THE CARRIER HAS DEMONSTRATED ... SUFFICIENT FINANCIAL RESERVES, WHICHEVER IS LATER. Subsection 2 requires the carrier to issue to an eligible small employer that applies and AGREES TO MAKE THE REQUIRED PREMIUM PAYMENTS AND SATISFY THE OTHER REASONABLE PROVISIONS, and adds that a carrier IS NOT REQUIRED TO ISSUE ... TO A SELF-EMPLOYED INDIVIDUAL WHO IS COVERED BY, OR IS ELIGIBLE FOR COVERAGE UNDER, HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE OFFERED BY AN EMPLOYER. Subsection 3 is the preexisting condition code, and it is the same code IAC 191-35.26, subrule 4, applies to large groups: the look-back is SIX MONTHS ENDING ON THE ENROLLMENT DATE, with GENETIC INFORMATION NOT TREATED AS A CONDITION IN THE ABSENCE OF A DIAGNOSIS; the exclusion extends NOT MORE THAN TWELVE MONTHS, OR EIGHTEEN MONTHS IN THE CASE OF A LATE ENROLLEE; and the period is REDUCED BY THE AGGREGATE OF THE PERIODS OF CREDITABLE COVERAGE as of the enrollment date, with a waiver required where the creditable coverage WAS CONTINUOUS TO A DATE NOT MORE THAN SIXTY-THREE DAYS PRIOR TO THE EFFECTIVE DATE. The answer with a twelve-month look-back doubles it and both exclusion periods. Work the stem: the employee treated four months before enrollment is inside the six-month look-back and may be excluded for up to twelve months; the late enrollee for up to eighteen; and the employee with eighteen months of coverage ending fifty days ago has enough credit to wipe out either. Paragraph 'b' bars any exclusion for a child adopted or placed for adoption before eighteen who is covered under creditable coverage as of the last day of the THIRTY-DAY period beginning on the adoption or placement, for an individual covered as of the last day of the THIRTY-DAY period beginning with the date of birth, and RELATING TO PREGNANCY.

An investor with no relationship to the insured arranges and funds a policy intending to profit from the death benefit. This is:

  1. An ordinary collateral assignment of the policy to a secured lender
  2. A key person arrangement, valid because the investor funds the premiums
  3. Stranger-originated life insurance (STOLI), which is illegal ✓
  4. A viatical settlement, permitted once the insured is terminally ill

Why: STOLI lacks insurable interest and is illegal; policies must be founded on a genuine insurable interest at inception.

Naming a qualified charity as the owner and beneficiary of a life insurance policy may allow the donor to:

  1. Take an income-tax deduction for the gift of the policy and premiums ✓
  2. Avoid ever paying any premiums on the donated policy at all
  3. Exclude the policy's eventual proceeds from the charity's own income
  4. Continue to control and borrow against the policy's full cash value

Why: Donating ownership of a policy to a charity can produce an income-tax deduction; the donor gives up control of the policy.

Which dividend option purchases small amounts of additional paid-up insurance?

  1. Reduction of premium
  2. Accumulate at interest
  3. Paid-up additions ✓
  4. Cash

Why: Paid-up additions use dividends to buy small single-premium amounts of permanent insurance, increasing both death benefit and cash value.

Life insurance is generally a 'valued' (not indemnity) contract because it pays:

  1. A benefit reduced by other coverage in force
  2. Nothing unless the beneficiary documents expenses
  3. Only the actual financial loss the family proves
  4. A stated face amount, not the measured economic loss ✓

Why: Life insurance pays the agreed face amount regardless of proven loss; medical expense insurance instead indemnifies actual costs.

Distributions from a qualified annuity (funded with pre-tax dollars) are:

  1. Entirely income-tax-free in all circumstances
  2. Taxed only on the portion above the cost basis
  3. Fully taxable as ordinary income when received ✓
  4. Subject to capital-gains rates on the whole amount

Why: Because a qualified annuity has no after-tax cost basis, the entire distribution is taxable as ordinary income; required minimum distributions also apply.

An Iowa-organised insurer refuses to submit to an examination. Under Iowa Code 507.3, what must the commissioner do, and what follows?

  1. Issue a notice of hearing under chapter 17A and, if the refusal persists after that hearing, suspend or revoke the company's certificate of authority for noncompliance.
  2. Apply to the district court of the county for an order compelling the examination, revocation of the certificate being available only if that order is disobeyed.
  3. Immediately revoke its certificate of authority, and report the action to the attorney general, who shall immediately apply to the district court for the appointment of a receiver. ✓
  4. Impose the $5,000 civil penalty in section 505.7A and renew the written request for access.

Why: Iowa Code 507.3(2) requires a company and its officers, directors and agents to give the examiners TIMELY, CONVENIENT, AND FREE ACCESS AT ALL REASONABLE HOURS AT ITS OFFICES TO ALL BOOKS, RECORDS, ACCOUNTS, PAPERS, DOCUMENTS, AND ANY OR ALL COMPUTER OR OTHER RECORDINGS, and to FACILITATE THE EXAMINATION AND AID IN THE EXAMINATION SO FAR AS IT IS IN THEIR POWER TO DO SO. It then sets two different consequences. A REFUSAL to submit to examination or to comply with any reasonable written request IS GROUNDS FOR SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF, OR NONRENEWAL OF, ANY LICENSE OR AUTHORITY. But where the company DECLINES OR REFUSES TO SUBMIT TO AN EXAMINATION, THE COMMISSIONER SHALL IMMEDIATELY REVOKE ITS CERTIFICATE OF AUTHORITY, AND IF THE COMPANY IS ORGANIZED UNDER THE LAWS OF THIS STATE, THE COMMISSIONER SHALL REPORT THE COMMISSIONER'S ACTION TO THE ATTORNEY GENERAL, WHO SHALL IMMEDIATELY APPLY TO THE DISTRICT COURT FOR THE APPOINTMENT OF A RECEIVER TO ADMINISTER THE FINAL AFFAIRS OF THE COMPANY. SHALL and IMMEDIATELY in both places: the commissioner has no discretion to wait, and no hearing precedes it.

An Iowa life insurer proposes to run its in-force business against a commercial database of reported deaths rather than against the United States social security administration's own file, and asks what will count as a hit. What do the definitions in Iowa Code 507B.4C say about the file it must use and about what amounts to a match?

  1. 'Death master file' means the United States social security administration's death master file and nothing else, the definition naming a single federal source so that every insurer doing business in the state searches the same records and no insurer can be heard to argue about the comprehensiveness of some privately compiled substitute for it. 'Death master file match' means a search of that file which results in a match of an authorized person's name and social security number, or of an authorized person's name and date of birth.
  2. 'Death master file' means the United States social security administration's death master file or any other database or service that is at least as comprehensive as that file for determining that a person has died, so a commercial database may be used if it meets that standard. 'Death master file match' means a search of the death master file that results in a match of an authorized person's name, social security number and date of birth, all three identifiers being required before the insurer's duties under the section are engaged.
  3. 'Death master file' means the United States social security administration's death master file or any other database or service that is at least as comprehensive as that file for determining that a person has died, so a commercial database may be used if it meets that standard. 'Death master file match' means a search of the death master file that results in a match of a beneficiary's name and social security number, or of a beneficiary's name and date of birth, the beneficiary being the person the insurer must ultimately pay.
  4. 'Death master file' means the United States social security administration's death master file or any other database or service that is at least as comprehensive as that file for determining that a person has died, so a commercial database may be used if it meets that standard. 'Death master file match' means a search of the death master file that results in a match of an authorized person's name and social security number, or of an authorized person's name and date of birth. ✓

Why: Two definitions in Iowa Code 507B.4C(2) do the technical work of the section. Paragraph 'd': 'DEATH MASTER FILE' MEANS THE UNITED STATES SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION'S DEATH MASTER FILE OR ANY OTHER DATABASE OR SERVICE THAT IS AT LEAST AS COMPREHENSIVE AS THE UNITED STATES SOCIAL SECURITY ADMINISTRATION'S DEATH MASTER FILE FOR DETERMINING THAT A PERSON HAS DIED. The definition is deliberately open: it names one source and then admits any other that meets a COMPARATIVE standard, so the question about a commercial database is answered by whether it is AT LEAST AS COMPREHENSIVE, not by whether it is the federal file. The answer confining the file to the federal one closes the definition, and its reasoning - uniformity across insurers - is a good policy argument that the drafter did not adopt. Paragraph 'e': 'DEATH MASTER FILE MATCH' MEANS A SEARCH OF THE DEATH MASTER FILE THAT RESULTS IN A MATCH OF AN AUTHORIZED PERSON'S NAME AND SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER OR AN AUTHORIZED PERSON'S NAME AND DATE OF BIRTH. Two pairs, joined by OR: name plus social security number, OR name plus date of birth. Either pair is enough, and requiring all three would defeat the section for every record where one identifier is missing - which is precisely the case 507B.4C(3)'c' addresses when it requires procedures to account for INCOMPLETE SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBERS. One answer matches on the BENEFICIARY instead of the AUTHORIZED PERSON, and that is the single most important distinction in the section: an authorized person is a POLICY OWNER, INSURED, ANNUITY OWNER, ANNUITANT, OR ACCOUNT HOLDER under 507B.4C(2)'c', that is, the person whose death makes money payable; the beneficiary is who the insurer must then locate. This explanation does not say what the social security administration's file contains or how it is compiled: it is a federal record, and the only thing 507B.4C tells us about it is that it is the benchmark against which any substitute is measured.

A 52-year-old withdraws $8,000 of gain from a nonqualified annuity. The IRS penalty (besides income tax) is:

  1. $800 ✓
  2. $1,600
  3. $400
  4. $0

Why: Premature distributions before 59½ incur a 10% penalty: 10% × $8,000 = $800.

An Iowa insurer is preparing the tabular detail of a basic illustration for a policy on which the contract premium steps up in year 12. At what durations must the table show figures, what must it show at each, and what happens where a nonguaranteed value is shown at a duration at which no guaranteed value exists?

  1. At least each policy year from one to twenty and every tenth policy year thereafter, ending at age 100, policy maturity or final expiration; and, except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium is to change - so year 12 falls inside the first run and needs no separate entry. At each duration it must show the premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium as applicable, the corresponding guaranteed death benefit as provided in the policy, and the corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender. Where a nonguaranteed benefit or value is shown at a duration at which no guaranteed benefit or value is available, a zero must be displayed in the guaranteed column.
  2. At least each policy year from one to ten and every fifth policy year thereafter, ending at age 100, policy maturity or final expiration; and, except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium is to change. At each duration it must show the premium outlay and mode and the contract premium as applicable, the corresponding guaranteed death benefit, and the corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender. Where a nonguaranteed benefit or value is shown at a duration at which no guaranteed benefit or value is available, the guaranteed column is left blank, since displaying a zero would suggest that the policy provides a guaranteed benefit of nothing rather than that it provides no guaranteed benefit at all, and the rules are drafted to avoid figures that could be read as statements about a benefit that does not exist.
  3. At least each policy year from one to ten and every fifth policy year thereafter, ending at age 100, policy maturity or final expiration; and for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium is to change, with no exception for term insurance however long the term runs. At each duration it must show the premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium as applicable, and the corresponding guaranteed death benefit as provided in the policy; the guaranteed value available upon surrender belongs to the numeric summary rather than to the tabular detail. Where a nonguaranteed benefit or value is shown at a duration at which no guaranteed benefit or value is available, a zero must be displayed in the guaranteed column.
  4. At least each policy year from one to ten and every fifth policy year thereafter, ending at age 100, policy maturity or final expiration; and, except for term insurance beyond the twentieth year, for any year in which the premium outlay and contract premium is to change - so year 12 must be shown. At each duration it must show the premium outlay and mode the applicant plans to pay and the contract premium as applicable, the corresponding guaranteed death benefit as provided in the policy, and the corresponding guaranteed value available upon surrender. Where a nonguaranteed benefit or value is shown at a duration at which no guaranteed benefit or value is available, a zero must be displayed in the guaranteed column. ✓

Why: Rule IAC 191-14.7(5)'a' fixes the durations: A BASIC ILLUSTRATION SHALL INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING FOR AT LEAST EACH POLICY YEAR FROM ONE TO TEN AND FOR EVERY FIFTH POLICY YEAR THEREAFTER ENDING AT AGE 100, POLICY MATURITY OR FINAL EXPIRATION; AND EXCEPT FOR TERM INSURANCE BEYOND THE TWENTIETH YEAR, FOR ANY YEAR IN WHICH THE PREMIUM OUTLAY AND CONTRACT PREMIUM, IF APPLICABLE, IS TO CHANGE. One to ten then every fifth, not one to twenty then every tenth - and the change-of-premium requirement carries a carve-out for TERM INSURANCE BEYOND THE TWENTIETH YEAR, which the answer allowing no exception for term insurance deletes. That carve-out exists because an annually renewable term rate changes every year and a table showing every one of them would be unreadable. On the stem's facts the policy is not term insurance and the step-up is in year 12, so year 12 must be shown even though it falls between the ten-year run and the fifteenth-year point. Three things must be shown at each duration: THE PREMIUM OUTLAY AND MODE THE APPLICANT PLANS TO PAY AND THE CONTRACT PREMIUM, AS APPLICABLE; THE CORRESPONDING GUARANTEED DEATH BENEFIT, AS PROVIDED IN THE POLICY; AND THE CORRESPONDING GUARANTEED VALUE AVAILABLE UPON SURRENDER, AS PROVIDED IN THE POLICY. The same answer sends the surrender value to the numeric summary; it belongs in both. Paragraph 'b' adds that for a policy providing a contract premium the guaranteed figures must CORRESPOND TO THE CONTRACT PREMIUM. Paragraph 'c' governs the nonguaranteed side: NONGUARANTEED ELEMENTS MAY BE SHOWN IF DESCRIBED IN THE CONTRACT... IF ANY NONGUARANTEED ELEMENTS ARE SHOWN, THEY MUST BE SHOWN AT THE SAME DURATIONS AS THE CORRESPONDING GUARANTEED ELEMENTS, IF ANY. IF NO GUARANTEED BENEFIT OR VALUE IS AVAILABLE AT ANY DURATION FOR WHICH A NONGUARANTEED BENEFIT OR VALUE IS SHOWN, A ZERO SHALL BE DISPLAYED IN THE GUARANTEED COLUMN. A ZERO, not a blank - and the reasoning for a blank is exactly inverted: the point of printing a nought is that a blank cell reads as an omission while a nought reads as an answer. Paragraph 'c' also permits terminal dividends to be shown IF THE INSURER'S CURRENT PRACTICE IS TO PAY TERMINAL DIVIDENDS.

A two-tier annuity is one in which the contract has:

  1. Two named annuitants, both of whom must survive for the income payments to continue
  2. Two declared interest rates, one for new deposits and one for older money, that the owner switches between each year
  3. A higher value if annuitized and a lower value if surrendered for cash ✓
  4. A death benefit equal to twice the account value if the owner dies during the accumulation period

Why: A two-tier annuity credits a higher value when the owner annuitizes and a lower value on cash surrender, incentivizing annuitization.

A person turns 65 and enrolls in Part B. During the six months that follow, they apply for a Medigap policy. The insurer must:

  1. Issue any plan offered, regardless of health ✓
  2. Charge a surcharge for pre-existing conditions
  3. Require a full medical exam before issuing
  4. Decline if the applicant has a chronic illness

Why: During the six-month Medigap open enrollment period (age 65 + enrolled in Part B), coverage is guaranteed issue regardless of health.

An applicant pays the first premium with the application and receives a conditional receipt, but underwriting later finds the applicant was NOT insurable as applied for. The insurer:

  1. Is bound to the coverage as originally applied for
  2. Returns the premium and provides no coverage ✓
  3. Issues the policy at a higher premium automatically
  4. Must pay a partial death benefit anyway

Why: A conditional receipt provides coverage only if the applicant was insurable as applied for; if not, there is no coverage and the premium is refunded.

An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) sent to an insured is:

  1. A bill the insured must pay before any care is delivered
  2. A government form used to enroll in a new health plan
  3. A statement showing what the plan paid and what the insured owes ✓
  4. The legally binding insurance contract between the parties

Why: An EOB is not a bill; it itemizes the charge, the plan's allowed amount, what the plan paid, and the patient's remaining responsibility.

The Medicare Annual Election Period (AEP), when beneficiaries may join or change Part D and Medicare Advantage plans, runs:

  1. July 1 to September 30
  2. January 1 to March 31
  3. The month of the beneficiary's birthday
  4. October 15 to December 7 ✓

Why: During the AEP (Oct 15–Dec 7), beneficiaries can enroll in or switch Part D and Medicare Advantage plans for the coming year.

Basic hospital expense coverage differs from major medical coverage because basic coverage typically:

  1. Carries a large deductible and shares costs through coinsurance with the insured
  2. Includes broad coverage for almost every type of medical service
  3. Pays first-dollar benefits but only up to limited amounts ✓
  4. Has very high lifetime maximums covering catastrophic illnesses

Why: Basic hospital/surgical/medical plans pay first-dollar (no deductible) but with limited benefits; major medical adds deductibles, coinsurance, and high limits.

Medicare Part C (Medicare Advantage) plans:

  1. Are available exclusively to people under age 65 with disabilities
  2. Replace the need to ever enroll in Original Medicare at all
  3. Are private plans that bundle Part A and B coverage, often with drugs ✓
  4. Pay only for inpatient hospital stays and nothing else

Why: Medicare Advantage (Part C) is offered by private insurers and combines Part A and B benefits, frequently including Part D drug coverage.

An Iowa employee has been covered under her employer's group health plan for two months when she is laid off. A colleague with four years' coverage is laid off the same day; he is sixty-eight and enrolled in Medicare. A third colleague, also laid off, is eligible for coverage under her husband's group plan, which she has never joined. The plan includes dental and vision benefits. What does Iowa Code 509B.3 provide?

  1. Continuation is available only to an employee continuously insured under the group policy, and for similar benefits under any policy it replaced, during the entire six months' period immediately preceding termination, so two months is not enough. Continuation is not available to a person who is or could be covered by Medicare, nor to a person who is or is eligible to be covered by another group arrangement, such as a husband's plan, unless covered by it immediately before the termination. Continuation may exclude dental, vision or prescription drug benefits. The duty applies to a group policy insuring on an expense-incurred or service basis other than for specific diseases or accidental injuries only. Where the group policy was preceded by a policy it replaced, coverage under the replaced policy does not count toward the qualifying period, which must be served under the policy actually in force at the termination; and an employee who has served that period may continue the coverage free of any condition the group policy imposes on the benefits themselves.
  2. Continuation is available only to an employee or member who was continuously insured under the group policy, and for similar benefits under any group policy which it replaced, during the entire three months' period immediately preceding the termination - so two months is not enough. Continuation shall not be available for a person who is or could be covered by Medicare, nor for a person who is or is eligible to be covered by another group insured or uninsured arrangement providing accident or health coverage, unless the person was covered by that other group policy immediately prior to the termination - so the Medicare enrollee and the employee merely eligible under her husband's plan are both out. Continuation may exclude dental care, vision care, or prescription drug benefits or other benefits provided under the group policy which are in addition to accident or health benefits. The duty applies to a group policy insuring on an expense-incurred or service basis, other than for specific diseases or for accidental injuries only. ✓
  3. Continuation is available only to an employee continuously insured during the entire three months' period immediately preceding termination, so two months is not enough. Continuation is not available to a person who is or could be covered by Medicare. A person merely eligible for another group arrangement is not barred - only actual coverage under another arrangement defeats continuation, since an eligibility the person has not taken up leaves her with nothing. Continuation may exclude dental, vision or prescription drug benefits. The duty applies to a policy insuring on an expense-incurred or service basis other than for specific diseases or accidental injuries only.
  4. Continuation is available only to an employee continuously insured during the entire three months' period immediately preceding termination. Continuation is not available to a person who is or could be covered by Medicare, nor to a person who is or is eligible to be covered by another group arrangement unless covered by it immediately before the termination. Continuation must carry every benefit the group policy provided, including dental, vision and prescription drug benefits, the continued coverage being the same coverage the employee had. The duty applies to a policy insuring on an expense-incurred or service basis other than for specific diseases or accidental injuries only.

Why: Iowa Code 509B.3 opens by fixing which policies carry the duty at all - a group policy DELIVERED OR ISSUED FOR DELIVERY IN THIS STATE WHICH INSURES EMPLOYEES OR MEMBERS FOR ACCIDENT OR HEALTH INSURANCE ON AN EXPENSE-INCURRED OR SERVICE BASIS, OTHER THAN FOR SPECIFIC DISEASES OR FOR ACCIDENTAL INJURIES ONLY - and then makes the right subject to ALL THE GROUP POLICY'S TERMS AND CONDITIONS and to the conditions in its own subsections. Subsection 1 is the service condition: CONTINUATION SHALL ONLY BE AVAILABLE TO AN EMPLOYEE OR MEMBER IF THE EMPLOYEE OR MEMBER WAS CONTINUOUSLY INSURED UNDER THE GROUP POLICY, AND FOR SIMILAR BENEFITS UNDER ANY GROUP POLICY WHICH IT REPLACED, DURING THE ENTIRE THREE MONTHS' PERIOD IMMEDIATELY PRECEDING THE TERMINATION. THREE months, not six - and note the replacement limb, which means an employer changing carriers does not restart the clock for its workforce. The two-month employee is short and has no right. Subsection 2 carries two bars in two sentences. The first is absolute: CONTINUATION SHALL NOT BE AVAILABLE FOR A PERSON WHO IS OR COULD BE COVERED BY MEDICARE - IS OR COULD BE, so the sixty-eight-year-old is out whether or not he has enrolled. The second is conditional, and the answer barring only actual coverage deletes the word that makes it bite: CONTINUATION SHALL NOT BE AVAILABLE FOR A PERSON WHO IS OR IS ELIGIBLE TO BE COVERED BY ANOTHER GROUP INSURED OR UNINSURED ARRANGEMENT WHICH PROVIDES ACCIDENT OR HEALTH COVERAGE, UNLESS THE PERSON WAS COVERED BY THAT OTHER GROUP POLICY IMMEDIATELY PRIOR TO THE TERMINATION. Mere eligibility is enough to bar - so the employee who could join her husband's plan is out - and the exception protects the person who already had both, so that a double-covered employee is not stripped of one of them by the existence of the other. Subsection 3 is what the answer requiring every benefit to be continued denies: CONTINUATION MAY EXCLUDE DENTAL CARE, VISION CARE, OR PRESCRIPTION DRUG BENEFITS OR OTHER BENEFITS PROVIDED UNDER THE GROUP POLICY WHICH BENEFITS ARE IN ADDITION TO ACCIDENT OR HEALTH BENEFITS. The chapter protects the medical core, not the whole package, which is why the definition of ACCIDENT OR HEALTH INSURANCE in section 509B.1 is confined to hospital, surgical and major medical insurance.

An Iowa small employer carrier wants to stop offering one of its small group products, and is separately considering leaving the Iowa small group market altogether. A small employer on its books has fallen below the carrier's minimum participation requirement, and another's trade association membership - the basis of its coverage - has lapsed. What does Iowa Code 513B.5 provide?

  1. Coverage is renewable with respect to all eligible employees or their dependents at the option of the small employer except for the listed reasons, which include nonpayment, fraud or intentional misrepresentation of a material fact, noncompliance with the carrier's minimum participation requirements, noncompliance with employer contribution requirements, and cessation of the employer's membership in an association through which the coverage is provided, but only if that termination occurs uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor. To discontinue a particular type of coverage the carrier must give the commissioner notice at least three days before notifying affected parties, give those parties no less than ninety days notice, offer each plan sponsor any other coverage it currently offers to other employers in this state, and act uniformly. To discontinue all its small group coverage it must give the commissioner three days' notice, give affected parties no less than one hundred eighty days notice, and discontinue everything - and it shall not write any new business in the small employer market in this state for five years after the date of notice to the commissioner. ✓
  2. Coverage is renewable with respect to all eligible employees or their dependents at the option of the small employer except for the listed reasons, which include nonpayment or failure to make timely payment, fraud or intentional misrepresentation of a material fact, noncompliance with the carrier's minimum participation requirements, noncompliance with its employer contribution requirements, and cessation of the employer's membership in an association through which the coverage is provided. To discontinue a particular type of coverage the carrier must give the commissioner notice no less than three days before notifying affected parties, give those parties no less than ninety days' notice, offer each plan sponsor the option to purchase any other coverage it currently offers to other employers in this state, and act uniformly. To discontinue all of its small group coverage it must give affected parties no less than one hundred eighty days' notice and discontinue every such coverage, but may re-enter the small employer market at any time, no period of abstention applying to a carrier that has left in an orderly way and given every notice the paragraph requires to the commissioner.
  3. Coverage is renewable with respect to all eligible employees or their dependents at the option of the small employer except for the listed reasons, which include nonpayment, fraud or intentional misrepresentation of a material fact, noncompliance with the carrier's minimum participation requirements, noncompliance with its employer contribution requirements, and cessation of the employer's membership in an association through which the coverage is provided, that last ground operating only where the termination occurs uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor. To discontinue a particular type of coverage the carrier must give the commissioner notice no less than three days before notifying affected parties, give those parties no less than ninety days' notice, and act uniformly without regard to the claims experience of the sponsors; it need not offer the plan sponsor any replacement coverage. To discontinue all of its small group coverage it must give one hundred eighty days' notice and may not write new small group business in this state for five years after the date of notice to the commissioner.
  4. Coverage is renewable at the option of the small employer except for the listed reasons, which include nonpayment, fraud or intentional misrepresentation of a material fact, and noncompliance with the carrier's minimum participation or employer contribution requirements, so the employer that has fallen below the participation requirement may be nonrenewed. Cessation of the employer's membership in an association through which the coverage is provided is not a ground for nonrenewal, the coverage having been issued to the employer rather than to the association. To discontinue a particular type of coverage the carrier must give three days' notice to the commissioner, ninety days' notice to affected parties, offer replacement coverage and act uniformly; a total withdrawal requires one hundred eighty days' notice and carries a five-year bar on new small group business.

Why: Iowa Code 513B.5 is the small group counterpart of IAC 191-35.26 for large groups, and the two carry the same figures. Subsection 1 states the right: HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE SUBJECT TO THIS CHAPTER IS RENEWABLE WITH RESPECT TO ALL ELIGIBLE EMPLOYEES OR THEIR DEPENDENTS, AT THE OPTION OF THE SMALL EMPLOYER, EXCEPT FOR ONE OR MORE OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS. The employer chooses whether to renew; the carrier may refuse only on a listed ground. Those grounds are failure to pay or make timely payment; AN ACT OR PRACTICE CONSTITUTING FRAUD OR AN INTENTIONAL MISREPRESENTATION OF A MATERIAL FACT; NONCOMPLIANCE WITH THE CARRIER'S MINIMUM PARTICIPATION REQUIREMENTS; NONCOMPLIANCE WITH THE CARRIER'S EMPLOYER CONTRIBUTION REQUIREMENTS - two separate grounds, and the employer in the stem that has fallen below the participation requirement is squarely within the third; the two discontinuance routes; cessation of association membership; and a finding by the commissioner that CONTINUATION OF THE COVERAGE IS NOT IN THE BEST INTERESTS OF THE POLICYHOLDERS OR CERTIFICATE HOLDERS, OR WOULD IMPAIR THE CARRIER'S ABILITY TO MEET ITS CONTRACTUAL OBLIGATIONS. Paragraph 'g' answers the second employer and defeats the answer saying lapsed association membership is no ground: THE MEMBERSHIP OF AN EMPLOYER IN AN ASSOCIATION, WHICH IS THE BASIS FOR THE COVERAGE WHICH IS PROVIDED THROUGH SUCH ASSOCIATION, CEASES, BUT ONLY IF THE TERMINATION OF COVERAGE UNDER THIS PARAGRAPH OCCURS UNIFORMLY WITHOUT REGARD TO ANY HEALTH STATUS-RELATED FACTOR RELATING TO ANY COVERED INDIVIDUAL. It is a ground, but a conditional one. Paragraph 'e' governs discontinuing one type of coverage and carries four conditions, of which the answer excusing any replacement offer deletes the one that matters: advance notice to the commissioner NO LESS THAN THREE DAYS PRIOR TO THE NOTICE to affected parties; notice to all affected small employers, participants and beneficiaries NO LESS THAN NINETY DAYS PRIOR TO THE NONRENEWAL; an offer TO EACH PLAN SPONSOR OF THE DISCONTINUED COVERAGE, THE OPTION TO PURCHASE ANY OTHER COVERAGE CURRENTLY OFFERED BY THE CARRIER TO OTHER EMPLOYERS IN THIS STATE; and uniform action in both discontinuing and offering, WITHOUT REGARD TO THE CLAIMS EXPERIENCE OF THE SPONSORS ... OR TO A HEALTH STATUS-RELATED FACTOR. Paragraph 'f' governs leaving the market entirely: the same three days to the commissioner, ONE HUNDRED EIGHTY DAYS to affected parties, and discontinuance of ALL health insurance coverage issued or delivered for issuance to small employers in this state. Subsection 2 supplies the price of that choice and the answer letting the carrier re-enter at any time removes it: A CARRIER THAT ELECTS NOT TO RENEW HEALTH INSURANCE COVERAGE UNDER SUBSECTION 1, PARAGRAPH 'F', SHALL NOT WRITE ANY NEW BUSINESS IN THE SMALL EMPLOYER MARKET IN THIS STATE FOR A PERIOD OF FIVE YEARS AFTER THE DATE OF NOTICE TO THE COMMISSIONER. Subsection 3 confines the section, for a carrier doing business in one established geographic service area, to that carrier's operations in that area. Paragraph 'i' separately allows a carrier to MODIFY a product at renewal where the modification is consistent with state law and EFFECTIVE ON A UNIFORM BASIS among coverage with that product.

A Medicare Part A benefit period begins when a patient is admitted and ends:

  1. 60 days after the patient has been discharged ✓
  2. On the last calendar day of that same month
  3. Only when the patient changes to a different hospital
  4. After exactly one full year from the admission date

Why: A benefit period starts at admission and ends after the patient has been out of a hospital/SNF for 60 consecutive days; a new period (and deductible) can then begin.

A policy has an accidental death benefit (double indemnity) rider. The insured dies of a heart attack. The beneficiary receives:

  1. Double the face amount, since the rider doubles every death claim
  2. The face amount only, with no doubling ✓
  3. Only the accumulated cash value
  4. Face amount tripled by the rider

Why: Double indemnity pays an additional amount only for accidental death; death from illness pays the regular face amount.

'Unfair discrimination' in insurance means:

  1. Setting premiums using actuarially sound mortality tables
  2. Declining an applicant who genuinely presents a substandard risk
  3. Offering preferred rates to applicants who do not use tobacco
  4. Charging different rates to individuals of the same class and risk ✓

Why: Unfair discrimination is applying different rates or terms to insureds of the same class and equal risk; risk-based distinctions are permitted.

Annuity suitability rules require a producer recommending an annuity to:

  1. Recommend whichever annuity product happens to pay the producer the highest available commission
  2. Have reasonable grounds that it fits the consumer's financial needs and situation ✓
  3. Sell only immediate annuities to consumers over the age of sixty
  4. Guarantee the annuity will outperform every available alternative

Why: Suitability standards require the recommendation be appropriate based on the consumer's financial situation, needs, and objectives.

A deductible 'carryover' provision in a major medical plan allows expenses incurred in the last months of the year to:

  1. Be refunded in full to the insured at year end
  2. Double the plan's annual out-of-pocket maximum amount
  3. Apply toward the next year's deductible ✓
  4. Permanently eliminate the deductible for all future years

Why: A carryover provision lets eligible expenses from the final months (often the last three) count toward the following year's deductible.

A key feature of convertible term insurance is that it can be changed to a permanent policy:

  1. Only if the insured becomes totally disabled first
  2. Only after a new medical exam confirms insurability
  3. Only during the first policy year
  4. Without providing evidence of insurability ✓

Why: Convertible term can be converted to permanent coverage without evidence of insurability.

In a whole life policy, the 'net amount at risk' is the:

  1. Difference between the death benefit and the cash value ✓
  2. Cash value remaining after a policy loan is repaid
  3. Total of all premiums the policyowner has paid to date
  4. Portion of the premium used to cover the insurer's expenses

Why: The net amount at risk is the death benefit minus the accumulated cash value; it shrinks over time as the cash value grows toward the face amount.

An Iowa licensee is found after hearing to have committed several violations of the insurance subtitle, and the commissioner finds the licensee knew of the violations. Under Iowa Code 505.7A, what is the ceiling, where no other provision applies?

  1. $5,000 for each act or violation, up to an aggregate of $50,000 in any one six-month period. ✓
  2. $1,000 for each act or violation, up to an aggregate of $10,000, the finding of knowledge going only to whether a hearing was required first.
  3. $5,000 for each act or violation, with no aggregate ceiling at all.
  4. $10,000 for each separate act or violation, up to an aggregate of $100,000 in any one calendar year, where the licensee knew of the violations.

Why: Iowa Code 505.7A provides that UNLESS SPECIFICALLY PROVIDED FOR IN THIS SUBTITLE, PENALTIES IMPOSED UNDER THIS SUBTITLE BY ORDER OF THE COMMISSIONER OF INSURANCE AFTER HEARING SHALL NOT EXCEED ONE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION OF THIS SUBTITLE, UP TO AN AGGREGATE OF TEN THOUSAND DOLLARS, UNLESS THE PERSON KNEW OR REASONABLY SHOULD HAVE KNOWN THE PERSON WAS IN VIOLATION OF THIS SUBTITLE, IN WHICH CASE THE PENALTY SHALL NOT EXCEED FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION, UP TO AN AGGREGATE OF FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS IN ANY ONE SIX-MONTH PERIOD. The knowledge finding puts this licensee on the upper tier. Three features repay attention. The section is a RESIDUAL - it applies only where the subtitle does not provide specifically, so a chapter with its own penalty displaces it. Each tier has a per-act figure AND an aggregate. And the SIX-MONTH WINDOW appears only on the upper tier. It bites only after a HEARING.

A 'jumping juvenile' policy is characterized by a face amount that:

  1. Increases automatically at a stated age without a premium increase ✓
  2. Is invested in mutual fund subaccounts the child's parents select each year
  3. Declines steadily each year until the insured child reaches the age of majority
  4. Is payable only after the insured child has passed a paramedical exam at age 18

Why: A jumping juvenile policy's face amount jumps (e.g., fivefold) at the age of majority with no increase in premium and no new evidence of insurability.

An insurer wants Iowa approval for a policy containing a series of guaranteed pure endowment benefits. It proposes to state the gross premium for that benefit in small print at the foot of the schedule, to make each endowment payable only if premiums falling due after its maturity are paid, to express the endowments as a percentage of the premiums, and to include the series in a participating policy. Which of those may it do?

  1. All of them except the first. The requirements a candidate may remember about contingency on premiums falling due after the endowment, about stating dollar amounts rather than a percentage of the gross premium, and about participating policies are drawn from the definition of a coupon policy rather than from the requirements for approval of a policy containing guaranteed pure endowment benefits, and a policy that is not a coupon policy is subject only to the type-size requirement; the reason the rules single out the prominence of the premium statement is that the mischief they are directed at is the presentation of an endowment series as something for nothing rather than as an insurance benefit for which a separately identifiable premium is being charged to the policyholder in every single case.
  2. None of them, and in addition no policy containing a series of guaranteed pure endowment benefits may be approved in this state at all, such a series being the defining feature of a coupon policy and coupon policies being prohibited.
  3. All of them except the last. Such a policy may be approved only if the gross premium charged for the benefit is separately stated in a size and style of type equal in prominence to that stating the gross premium for the other benefits in the policy, and a participating policy may not include a guaranteed pure endowment benefit; but there is no restriction on making the endowment contingent on later premiums or on expressing it as a percentage.
  4. None of them. Such a policy may be approved only if the gross premium charged for the benefit is separately stated in a size and style of type equal in prominence to that stating the gross premium for the other benefits in the policy; the payment of a guaranteed pure endowment benefit is not made contingent upon the payment of premiums falling due on or after the time the pure endowment has matured; the amount of the guaranteed series is expressed in dollar amounts and is not presented or defined, in the policy or in any sales or advertising material, as a percentage of any of the premiums or benefits contained in it; and no participating policy includes as part of its benefits a guaranteed pure endowment benefit. ✓

Why: Rule IAC 191-30.4(5), GUARANTEED PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFITS, is the one subrule of rule 30.4 that regulates rather than prohibits: NO POLICY CONTAINING A SERIES OF GUARANTEED PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFITS SHALL BE APPROVED FOR USE AFTER THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF THESE RULES UNLESS IT MEETS THE FOLLOWING REQUIREMENTS. So such a policy CAN be approved, on conditions - which is what the answer barring approval altogether denies, and the distinction from a coupon policy is real: a coupon policy is one whose pure endowments are EVIDENCED BY COUPONS, PASSBOOKS OR OTHER DEVICES GENERALLY ACQUAINTED WITH SAVINGS, BANKING OR INVESTMENT INSTITUTIONS, and it is the savings-account presentation rather than the endowment series itself that Iowa prohibits. There are five requirements and the stem walks through four of them. Paragraph 'a': THE GROSS PREMIUM CHARGED FOR THIS BENEFIT SHALL BE SEPARATELY STATED IN A SIZE AND STYLE OF TYPE EQUAL IN PROMINENCE TO THAT STATING THE GROSS PREMIUM FOR THE OTHER BENEFITS CONTAINED IN THE POLICY - so the small print at the foot of the schedule fails. Paragraph 'b': THE PAYMENT OF ANY GUARANTEED PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFIT SHALL NOT BE MADE CONTINGENT UPON THE PAYMENT OF PREMIUMS FALLING DUE ON OR AFTER THE TIME THE PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFIT HAS MATURED - once it has matured it is earned, and a lapse afterwards cannot take it away. Paragraph 'c': THE AMOUNT OF THE GUARANTEED SERIES OF PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFITS SHALL BE EXPRESSED IN DOLLAR AMOUNTS AND SHALL NOT BE PRESENTED OR DEFINED, EITHER IN THE POLICY OR ANY SALES AND ADVERTISING MATERIAL, AS A 'PERCENTAGE' OF ANY OF THE PREMIUMS OR BENEFITS CONTAINED THEREIN - and note that this one reaches the SALES AND ADVERTISING MATERIAL as well as the policy, so a compliant contract sold with a percentage illustration still breaches it. Paragraph 'd': NO PARTICIPATING POLICY SHALL INCLUDE AS PART OF ITS BENEFITS A GUARANTEED PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFIT. And paragraph 'e', which the stem does not raise: the language and terminology of the policy or of any sales and advertising material SHALL NOT PURPORT TO REPRESENT THE PURE ENDOWMENT BENEFIT OF THE POLICY TO BE ANYTHING OTHER THAN A GUARANTEED INSURANCE BENEFIT FOR WHICH A PREMIUM IS BEING PAID BY THE POLICYHOLDER. Read together, the five requirements say one thing five ways: the endowment series is insurance the buyer is paying for, and it may not be dressed up as a bonus, a rebate or a savings account.

An Iowa viatical settlement broker's file clerk notices that a medical record and an insurance application in the same file cannot both be true. The broker asks whether it must report this, whether it can be sued for reporting it, and what its own antifraud programme must contain. Its contracts carry no fraud warning at all. What does Iowa Code 508E.15 provide?

  1. Any person engaged in the business of viatical settlements having knowledge or a reasonable suspicion that a fraudulent viatical settlement act is being, will be, or has been committed may provide the commissioner with the information required by rule, reporting being permissive throughout section 508E.15 so that a licensee is never compelled to accuse its own client on a suspicion it cannot yet prove. No civil liability shall be imposed on a person who, acting reasonably and in good faith, furnishes such information. A provider or broker shall have antifraud initiatives including a fraud investigator and an antifraud plan submitted to the commissioner, the plan describing procedures for resolving material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications. The lack of the required fraud warning in a contract or application is not a defense in any prosecution for a fraudulent viatical settlement act.
  2. Any person engaged in the business of viatical settlements having knowledge or a reasonable suspicion that a fraudulent viatical settlement act is being, will be, or has been committed shall provide the commissioner with the information required by rule, while any other person having knowledge or a reasonable belief may do so. No civil liability shall be imposed on a person who, acting reasonably and in good faith, furnishes such information. A provider or broker shall have antifraud initiatives including a fraud investigator and an antifraud plan submitted to the commissioner. Where the contract and the application omit the fraud warning required by subsection 2, no prosecution for a fraudulent viatical settlement act arising out of that contract may be brought, the warning being the notice on which the offense depends; the reporting duty and the antifraud plan requirement fall away with it, the chapter's antifraud machinery resting on the warning as its foundation. Any document or evidence the broker furnishes the commissioner in an investigation of a suspected fraudulent act becomes a public record under chapter 22 once the investigation is concluded.
  3. Any person engaged in the business of viatical settlements having knowledge or a reasonable suspicion that a fraudulent viatical settlement act is being, will be, or has been committed shall provide the commissioner with the information required by rule, while any other person having knowledge or a reasonable belief may do so. A person who furnishes that information to the commissioner, to a law enforcement or regulatory official or to the life insurer that issued the policy enjoys immunity from civil liability without qualification, the protection being absolute so that no informant is deterred by the prospect of a suit, and bad faith or actual malice goes only to the weight the commissioner gives the report. A provider or broker shall have antifraud initiatives including a fraud investigator and an antifraud plan submitted to the commissioner. The lack of the required fraud warning is not a defense in any prosecution for a fraudulent viatical settlement act.
  4. Any person engaged in the business of viatical settlements having knowledge or a reasonable suspicion that a fraudulent viatical settlement act is being, will be, or has been committed shall provide the commissioner with the information required by rule, while any other person having knowledge or a reasonable belief may do so. No civil liability shall be imposed on and no cause of action shall arise from a person who, acting reasonably and in good faith, furnishes such information to the listed recipients, that immunity not applying to a statement made in bad faith or with actual malice. A provider or broker shall have antifraud initiatives including a fraud investigator and an antifraud plan submitted to the commissioner, the plan describing procedures for detecting and investigating possible fraudulent acts and for resolving material inconsistencies between medical records and insurance applications, procedures for reporting to the commissioner, the plan for antifraud education and training, and the organizational arrangement of antifraud personnel. The lack of the required fraud warning is not a defense in any prosecution for a fraudulent viatical settlement act. ✓

Why: Iowa Code 508E.15 is the chapter's antifraud machinery and it turns on four distinctions. Subsection 3 splits the reporting duty in two: paragraph "a" says ANY PERSON ENGAGED IN THE BUSINESS OF VIATICAL SETTLEMENTS HAVING KNOWLEDGE OR A REASONABLE SUSPICION THAT A FRAUDULENT VIATICAL SETTLEMENT ACT IS BEING, WILL BE, OR HAS BEEN COMMITTED SHALL PROVIDE TO THE COMMISSIONER SUCH INFORMATION AS REQUIRED BY AND IN A MANNER PRESCRIBED BY RULES, while paragraph "b" says ANY OTHER PERSON having knowledge or a REASONABLE BELIEF MAY do so. Shall for the industry, may for everyone else - which is what the answer making reporting permissive flattens; and note the threshold words differ too, suspicion inside the business and belief outside it. Subsection 4 is the immunity and it is conditional, not absolute: no civil liability shall be imposed on and no cause of action shall arise from a person who, ACTING REASONABLY AND IN GOOD FAITH, furnishes information to the commissioner and staff, to federal, state or local law enforcement or regulatory officials, to a person involved in the prevention and detection of fraudulent viatical settlement acts, to the national association of insurance commissioners, the financial industry regulatory authority, inc., the North American securities administrators association or another regulatory body, or to a life insurer that issued the policy. Paragraph "b" then says the immunity DOES NOT APPLY TO A STATEMENT MADE IN BAD FAITH OR WITH ACTUAL MALICE, and requires a plaintiff to plead bad faith or malice specifically - which is what the answer making the immunity absolute removes. Paragraph "c" adds an award of attorney fees and costs to a prevailing informant where the action was not substantially justified, except to a person furnishing information about the person's own fraudulent act. Subsection 7 is the antifraud programme: initiatives REASONABLY CALCULATED TO DETECT, PROSECUTE, AND PREVENT FRAUDULENT VIATICAL SETTLEMENT ACTS, which SHALL INCLUDE a fraud investigator - who may be the provider or broker itself, an employee, or an independent contractor - and an antifraud plan submitted to the commissioner describing the procedures for detecting and investigating possible fraudulent acts AND PROCEDURES FOR RESOLVING MATERIAL INCONSISTENCIES BETWEEN MEDICAL RECORDS AND INSURANCE APPLICATIONS, the procedures for reporting to the commissioner, the plan for antifraud education and training of underwriters and other personnel, and a description or chart of the organizational arrangement of the antifraud personnel. That first item is exactly the clerk's discovery. The plan itself is privileged and confidential notwithstanding chapter 22, is not a public record, and is not subject to discovery or subpoena. Subsection 2 requires every contract and application to carry the statement that ANY PERSON WHO KNOWINGLY PRESENTS FALSE INFORMATION IN AN APPLICATION FOR INSURANCE OR VIATICAL SETTLEMENT CONTRACT IS GUILTY OF A CRIME AND MAY BE SUBJECT TO FINES AND CONFINEMENT IN PRISON, or a substantially similar statement - and then closes the door the answer barring prosecution without the warning opens: THE LACK OF A STATEMENT AS REQUIRED IN PARAGRAPH "A" DOES NOT CONSTITUTE A DEFENSE IN ANY PROSECUTION FOR A FRAUDULENT VIATICAL SETTLEMENT ACT.

The board of directors of the association calls an assessment to meet its obligations arising from a particular insolvent member insurer. A member insurer receiving the notice asks what class of assessment this is, when it must pay, what happens if it pays late, and whether there is a ceiling on what it can be assessed in a single calendar year.

  1. It is a class A assessment, because an assessment called to meet the association's obligations is administrative in character whatever insolvency gives rise to it; it is due immediately on receipt of the notice and accrues interest at five percent per annum from the date of receipt; and the ceiling for each account is two percent of that insurer's premiums received in this state during the single calendar year immediately preceding the year in which the member insurer became impaired or insolvent, a one-year base being the only figure the insurer can verify from its own annual statement.
  2. It is a class B assessment; it is due not less than sixty days after prior written notice was sent and bears no interest, the association's remedy for late payment being confined to the administrative penalty the commissioner may levy after notice and hearing; and there is no annual ceiling, the board being obliged to assess whatever the account requires to meet anticipated claims and to draw on the other three accounts without limit whenever one of them is exhausted by a single insolvency.
  3. It is a class B assessment; it is due not less than thirty days after prior written notice was sent and accrues interest at ten percent per annum from the due date; and for each account the total assessments in any one calendar year may not exceed two percent of that insurer’s average annual premiums received in this state on the covered policies during the three calendar years preceding the year of impairment or insolvency. ✓
  4. It is a class A assessment; it is due not less than thirty days after prior written notice was sent and accrues interest at ten percent per annum from the due date; and the two percent ceiling is measured across all four accounts combined rather than account by account, so that an insurer writing in several accounts is assessed once against a single premium base.

Why: Iowa Code 508C.9(2) draws the class line by purpose, not by size. Class A assessments meet administrative and legal costs and other expenses and may be called whether or not related to a particular impaired or insolvent insurer; CLASS B assessments are called to the extent necessary to carry out the association’s powers and duties under section 508C.8 with regard to a particular impaired or insolvent insurer — which is what the facts describe. Subsection 1 fixes timing and interest: an assessment is due not less than thirty days after prior written notice has been sent, and accrues interest at ten percent per annum commencing on the due date. Subsection 5“a”(1) is the ceiling, and it is per account: the total of all assessments authorised with respect to a member insurer for EACH of the four accounts shall not in any one calendar year exceed two percent of that insurer’s average annual premiums received in this state on the policies covered by the account during the three calendar years preceding the year in which the insurer became impaired or insolvent. The same three-year premium base governs the proportion each insurer bears under subsection 3“d”. If the maximum assessment plus other assets is insufficient, subsection 5“a”(3) sends the shortfall into succeeding years rather than lifting the ceiling. Two further points: subsection 3“c” requires the class B assessment for LONG-TERM CARE written by the failed insurer to be allocated fifty percent to accident and health member insurers and fifty percent to life and annuity member insurers; and subsection 4 lets the board abate or defer an assessment that would endanger a member insurer’s ability to meet its own contractual obligations, the abated amount falling on the others and being repaid later under an approved repayment plan.

A disability policy has a 90-day elimination period and a $3,000 monthly benefit. If the insured is totally disabled for 8 months, the approximate total paid is:

  1. $15,000 ✓
  2. $24,000
  3. $9,000
  4. $21,000

Why: The first ~3 months (90-day elimination) pay nothing; benefits are paid for the remaining 5 months × $3,000 = $15,000.

Under a 'guaranteed renewable' health policy, the insurer must renew the coverage but:

  1. May refuse renewal on any individual policy anniversary date
  2. Can cancel mid-term whenever the insured files a large claim
  3. Must keep the premium the same for the life of the contract
  4. May increase the premium for an entire class of insureds ✓

Why: Guaranteed renewable guarantees renewal to a stated age but permits premium increases applied to a whole class, not to one insured.

An 'other-insured' (e.g., spouse) rider on a life policy provides:

  1. Automatic conversion of the base policy into a survivorship plan
  2. A second death benefit payable only if both spouses die together
  3. Waiver of premium whenever the additional insured is hospitalized
  4. Term life coverage on a family member other than the base insured ✓

Why: An other-insured rider adds term coverage on a spouse or other family member to the base insured's policy.

Under the 'one-year term' (fifth) dividend option, the dividend is used to:

  1. Permanently convert the policy into an extended-term form
  2. Purchase one year of term insurance, often equal to the cash value ✓
  3. Reduce the policy's death benefit for the following policy year
  4. Surrender the policy and take its full cash value in cash

Why: The one-year term option buys a year of term coverage (commonly equal to the cash value), increasing the total death benefit for that year.

In an 'entity' (stock redemption) buy-sell agreement funded with life insurance:

  1. The agreement applies only to sole proprietorships, never partnerships
  2. The business owns one policy on each owner and buys the deceased owner's interest ✓
  3. A bank or other third party holds all of the policies in trust until the business is sold or dissolved
  4. Each owner personally owns a policy on every other owner of the firm

Why: In an entity plan the business owns the policies and purchases a deceased owner's share; in a cross-purchase plan the owners insure each other.

An Iowa insurer is working out which of its business falls under the Uniform Individual Accident and Sickness Act. It writes individual sickness policies, a blanket policy for a school, and it has been approached by a fraternal order that admits only steeplejacks and by a religious order. It also asks whether 'accident and health' and 'accident and sickness' mean different things. What does Iowa Code 514A.1 provide?

  1. A policy of accident and sickness insurance includes a policy or contract covering insurance against loss resulting from sickness, or from bodily injury or death by accident, or both, and for the purposes of the chapter that phrase is interchangeable without deviation of meaning with 'policy of accident and health insurance' or 'policy of accident or health insurance'. The chapter applies to all individual policies of such insurance written by Iowa or non-Iowa companies or associations duly licensed under chapter 508, 515 or 520, and societies, orders or associations licensed under chapter 512B writing sickness and accident policies providing benefits for loss of time. Orders, societies or associations which admit to membership only persons engaged in one or more crafts or hazardous occupations in the same or similar lines of business, and their auxiliaries, are not subject to the chapter, nor is any religious order. ✓
  2. A policy of accident and sickness insurance includes a policy or contract covering insurance against loss resulting from sickness, or from bodily injury or death by accident, or both. 'accident and health' is a narrower term than 'accident and sickness': a policy described as an accident and health policy covers only medical expense, while an accident and sickness policy reaches loss of time. The chapter applies to all individual policies of such insurance written by Iowa or non-Iowa companies or associations duly licensed under chapter 508, 515 or 520, and societies, orders or associations licensed under chapter 512B writing sickness and accident policies providing benefits for loss of time. Orders, societies or associations admitting to membership only persons engaged in one or more crafts or hazardous occupations in the same or similar lines of business, and their auxiliaries, are outside the chapter, as is any religious order.
  3. A policy of accident and sickness insurance includes a policy or contract covering insurance against loss resulting from sickness, or from bodily injury or death by accident, or both, and for the purposes of the chapter that phrase is interchangeable without deviation of meaning with 'policy of accident and health insurance' and 'policy of accident or health insurance'. The chapter applies to all individual and all blanket or group policies of such insurance written by Iowa or non-Iowa companies or associations duly licensed under chapter 508, 515 or 520 and by societies, orders or associations licensed under chapter 512B. Orders, societies or associations admitting to membership only persons engaged in one or more crafts or hazardous occupations in the same or similar lines of business are outside it, as is any religious order.
  4. A policy of accident and sickness insurance includes a policy or contract covering insurance against loss resulting from sickness, or from bodily injury or death by accident, or both, and the phrase is interchangeable with 'policy of accident and health insurance' and 'policy of accident or health insurance'. The chapter applies to all individual policies of such insurance written by companies licensed under chapter 508, 515 or 520 and by societies licensed under chapter 512B writing loss-of-time policies. A craft or hazardous-occupation order is subject to the chapter in the same way as any other association, the exemption in the section being confined to religious orders. The chapter likewise reaches a blanket or group policy written by any of the named companies, the word individual in the scope subsection describing the individual who is insured rather than the form of the contract.

Why: Iowa Code 514A.1 does three things in three subsections. Subsection 1 defines the subject matter and then does something unusual and useful: FOR THE PURPOSES OF THIS CHAPTER THE WORDS 'POLICY OF ACCIDENT AND SICKNESS INSURANCE' ARE INTERCHANGEABLE WITHOUT DEVIATION OF MEANING WITH THE WORDS 'POLICY OF ACCIDENT AND HEALTH INSURANCE' OR THE WORDS 'POLICY OF ACCIDENT OR HEALTH INSURANCE'. The three phrases are one phrase. The answer treating 'accident and health' as narrower builds a distinction between them that the subsection expressly forecloses. Subsection 2 sets the scope and the word that matters is INDIVIDUAL: THIS CHAPTER APPLIES TO ALL INDIVIDUAL POLICIES OF SUCH ACCIDENT AND SICKNESS INSURANCE WRITTEN BY IOWA OR NON-IOWA COMPANIES OR ASSOCIATIONS DULY LICENSED UNDER CHAPTER 508, 515, OR 520 AND, SOCIETIES, ORDERS, OR ASSOCIATIONS LICENSED UNDER CHAPTER 512B WRITING SICKNESS AND ACCIDENT POLICIES PROVIDING BENEFITS FOR LOSS OF TIME. The answer applying the chapter to blanket and group policies sweeps them in, and section 514A.8 puts them expressly out - ANY BLANKET OR GROUP POLICY OF INSURANCE is one of the four things the chapter does not apply to. That is why the school's blanket policy is governed by IAC 191 chapter 35 rather than by this chapter. Note also the qualifier on the 512B limb: it reaches those societies only where the policies provide benefits FOR LOSS OF TIME. Subsection 3 carries two exemptions and the answer subjecting craft orders to the chapter deletes the first: ORDERS, SOCIETIES OR ASSOCIATIONS WHICH ADMIT TO MEMBERSHIP ONLY PERSONS ENGAGED IN ONE OR MORE CRAFTS OR HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS IN THE SAME OR SIMILAR LINES OF BUSINESS AND THE SOCIETIES OR AUXILIARIES TO SUCH ORDERS SHALL NOT BE SUBJECT TO THE PROVISIONS OF THIS CHAPTER NOR SHALL ANY RELIGIOUS ORDER BE SUBJECT TO THE PROVISIONS OF THIS CHAPTER. Read the craft exemption carefully - it turns on admitting ONLY such persons, so a general association with some steeplejacks in it is not exempt.

Money left in a typical health flexible spending account (FSA) at year-end is:

  1. Always rolled over indefinitely with no limit
  2. Transferred automatically into the employee's HSA
  3. Generally forfeited under the use-it-or-lose-it rule ✓
  4. Paid out to the employee as taxable cash

Why: FSAs are generally use-it-or-lose-it, though plans may allow a limited carryover or grace period.

A life insurer domiciled in Iowa is placed in liquidation. One policy owner lives in Iowa. A second lives in a neighbouring state which has a guaranty association of its own, and is not eligible for coverage there because the insurer was never licensed in that state at the time that state’s guaranty law specifies. The liquidator asks who the Iowa association covers.

  1. Only the Iowa resident is covered, because coverage under the chapter turns on residence in this state at the date the order of liquidation is entered, and a nonresident policy owner must look to the association of the state in which the policy was delivered, whatever the domicile of the member insurer that issued it.
  2. Both are covered: the resident is covered outright, and the nonresident is covered because all three statutory conditions are met — the state of residence has a similar association, the person is not eligible for coverage there because the insurer was not licensed in that state at the time that state’s law specifies, and the member insurer is domiciled in Iowa. ✓
  3. Both are covered, but on different footings: the resident is covered by the chapter outright, while the nonresident is covered only to the extent that the association of the state of residence declines the claim in writing, the Iowa association standing as payer of last resort wherever a similar association exists.
  4. Only the nonresident, whose insurer was never licensed in his state, is covered, as the section specifies, because a person eligible for coverage by the association of the state in which the member insurer is domiciled takes coverage there, while an Iowa resident whose insurer is domiciled in Iowa is covered by the receivership estate directly and falls outside the association's obligations under the chapter altogether.

Why: Iowa Code 508C.3(1)“b” covers persons who own, or hold certificates or are enrollees under, the policies specified in subsection 2, and who are either residents of this state or nonresidents meeting three cumulative conditions in subparagraph (2): the state of residence has an association similar to Iowa’s; the person is not eligible for coverage by that association in any other state because the insurer or health maintenance organization was not licensed there at the time that state’s guaranty law specifies; and the member insurer that issued the policy is domiciled in this state. The facts given satisfy all three. Paragraph “a” extends coverage to beneficiaries, assignees and payees of those persons regardless of where they reside — including health care providers rendering services covered under health policies — but expressly excepts nonresident certificate holders under group policies. Paragraph “e” supplies the anti-duplication principle that drives the whole scheme: a person who would otherwise be covered here but is covered under another state’s law is not covered here, and where more than one association could cover a person the chapter is construed with other states’ laws so that only one association covers. Subsection 2 fixes the instruments: direct life insurance, health insurance and annuities, supplemental contracts, certificates under group policies, and unallocated annuity contracts issued by member insurers — with health insurance including health maintenance organization subscriber contracts and certificates, long-term care insurance, and disability insurance policies.

An Iowa insurer is working out which of the ordinary life insurance chapters apply to its separate accounts and to the variable contracts relating to them, and what those contracts must contain. It also asks who regulates the issuance and sale of variable contracts. What does Iowa Code chapter 508A provide?

  1. Except for section 508.37 and section 509.2, subsection 1, and except as otherwise provided in chapter 508A, all pertinent provisions of chapters 508, 509, 511 and 522B apply to separate accounts and the contracts relating to them. Any individual variable life insurance contract delivered or issued for delivery in this state shall contain nonforfeiture provisions appropriate to such a contract; any group variable life insurance contract shall contain a grace provision appropriate to such a contract; and the reserve liability for variable contracts shall be established in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognise the variable nature of the benefits provided and any mortality guarantees. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the commissioner has sole authority to regulate the issuance and sale of variable contracts and to issue such reasonable rules and regulations as may be appropriate. ✓
  2. All pertinent provisions of chapters 508, 509, 511 and 522B apply to separate accounts and the contracts relating to them without exception, so that a variable life insurance contract must satisfy the Standard Nonforfeiture Law for Life Insurance in section 508.37 like any other life contract; that is why chapter 508A imposes no nonforfeiture standard of its own on an individual variable contract. Any group variable life insurance contract shall contain a grace provision appropriate to such a contract, and the reserve liability for variable contracts shall be established in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognise the variable nature of the benefits provided, mortality guarantees being given no separate recognition. The commissioner has sole authority to regulate the issuance and sale of variable contracts and to issue such reasonable rules and regulations as may be appropriate.
  3. Except for section 508.37 and section 509.2, subsection 1, and except as otherwise provided in chapter 508A, all pertinent provisions of chapters 508, 509, 511 and 522B apply to separate accounts and the contracts relating to them. Any individual variable life insurance contract delivered or issued for delivery in this state shall contain nonforfeiture provisions appropriate to such a contract; any group variable life insurance contract shall contain a grace provision appropriate to such a contract; and the reserve liability shall be established in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognise the variable nature of the benefits and any mortality guarantees. The commissioner's authority over the issuance and sale of variable contracts is concurrent with that of the state securities regulator, so a company must clear its forms and sales practices with both.
  4. Except for section 508.37 and section 509.2, subsection 1, all pertinent provisions of chapters 508, 509, 511 and 522B apply to separate accounts and the contracts relating to them. Any individual variable life insurance contract shall contain a grace provision appropriate to such a contract; any group variable life insurance contract shall contain nonforfeiture provisions appropriate to such a contract; and the reserve liability shall be established in accordance with actuarial procedures that recognise the variable nature of the benefits provided. The commissioner has sole authority to regulate the issuance and sale of variable contracts and to issue such reasonable rules as may be appropriate.

Why: Iowa Code 508A.5 is the bridge between chapter 508A and the rest of the life insurance code, and its opening words are the point: EXCEPT FOR SECTION 508.37 AND SECTION 509.2, SUBSECTION 1, AND EXCEPT AS OTHERWISE PROVIDED IN THIS CHAPTER, ALL PERTINENT PROVISIONS OF CHAPTERS 508, 509, 511, AND 522B SHALL APPLY TO SEPARATE ACCOUNTS AND CONTRACTS RELATING THERETO. TWO named exclusions, and one of them, section 508.37, is the Standard Nonforfeiture Law for Life Insurance. The answer applying the chapters without exception deletes that exclusion and reasons that chapter 508A therefore says nothing of its own about nonforfeiture; the section says the opposite in its very next sentence - ANY INDIVIDUAL VARIABLE LIFE INSURANCE CONTRACT, DELIVERED OR ISSUED FOR DELIVERY IN THIS STATE, SHALL CONTAIN NONFORFEITURE PROVISIONS APPROPRIATE TO SUCH A CONTRACT. The two go together: the ordinary nonforfeiture law is disapplied and a substitute standard - APPROPRIATE TO SUCH A CONTRACT - is imposed in its place. Note which requirement attaches to which kind of contract, because the answer giving individual contracts a grace provision swaps them: NONFORFEITURE provisions for an INDIVIDUAL variable life contract, a GRACE provision for a GROUP one. And the reserve rule: THE RESERVE LIABILITY FOR VARIABLE CONTRACTS SHALL BE ESTABLISHED IN ACCORDANCE WITH ACTUARIAL PROCEDURES THAT RECOGNIZE THE VARIABLE NATURE OF THE BENEFITS PROVIDED AND ANY MORTALITY GUARANTEES - the second limb, ANY MORTALITY GUARANTEES, is what the answer applying the chapters without exception and the answer swapping the two requirements drop. Iowa Code 508A.4 answers the last part and does so in unusually strong terms: NOTWITHSTANDING ANY OTHER PROVISION OF LAW, THE COMMISSIONER OF INSURANCE SHALL HAVE SOLE AUTHORITY TO REGULATE THE ISSUANCE AND SALE OF VARIABLE CONTRACTS, AND TO ISSUE SUCH REASONABLE RULES AND REGULATIONS AS MAY BE APPROPRIATE TO CARRY OUT THE PURPOSES AND PROVISIONS OF THIS CHAPTER. SOLE, and NOTWITHSTANDING ANY OTHER PROVISION OF LAW - which is precisely what the answer giving concurrent authority to the securities regulator waters down.

Under federal law, group health plans that cover dependent children must generally allow coverage to continue until the child reaches age:

  1. 18 in every state without any exception
  2. 21 unless the child is a full-time student
  3. 26 ✓
  4. 30 if the child remains unmarried

Why: The Affordable Care Act requires plans offering dependent coverage to extend it to adult children up to age 26.

The McCarran-Ferguson Act established that the insurance business is primarily regulated by:

  1. A single federal insurance agency in Washington
  2. International treaty organizations and trade bodies
  3. The individual states ✓
  4. The Internal Revenue Service and the U.S. Treasury

Why: McCarran-Ferguson (1945) affirmed that regulation of insurance is left to the states, except where federal law specifically applies.

The 'law of large numbers' is important to insurers because it:

  1. Eliminates the need for insurers to classify or underwrite risks
  2. Guarantees that no single insured will ever file a large claim
  3. Makes losses more predictable as the number of similar risks grows ✓
  4. Requires every applicant to be charged the exact same premium

Why: The larger the pool of similar exposures, the more closely actual losses approach predicted losses, allowing accurate pricing.

A 'warranty' differs from a 'representation' in that a warranty is:

  1. Guaranteed to be true, and its breach can void the policy ✓
  2. Only relevant after a claim is filed
  3. Merely believed to be true to the best of one's knowledge
  4. Always made orally rather than in writing

Why: A warranty is guaranteed absolutely true; a representation is believed true, and only a material misrepresentation affects the contract.

In a fixed annuity, the investment risk is borne by:

  1. The annuitant, whose sub-accounts rise and fall with the market
  2. The insurer, which guarantees a minimum interest rate ✓
  3. A federal guaranty fund backing annuity values
  4. The selling producer, under the agency contract

Why: A fixed annuity guarantees principal and a minimum interest rate, so the insurer bears the investment risk.

An Iowa resident producer's licence expired seven months ago; a nonresident producer's expired at about the same time. Both now want their licences back. Under IAC 191-10.9, what must each do, and what happens if either waits too long?

  1. The resident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date by paying a reinstatement fee and a licence renewal fee; no proof of continuing education is required on reinstatement, the continuing education requirement being a condition of renewal rather than of reinstatement, and a producer who let the licence lapse was not renewing it. The nonresident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date by submitting a request through the NIPR Gateway and paying the same two fees; either of them who waits longer than 12 months after the expiration date must apply for a new licence in the ordinary way.
  2. The resident may reinstate up to 24 months after the expiration date on proof of continuing education and payment of a reinstatement fee and a licence renewal fee; a resident who fails to apply within 24 months must apply for a new licence. The nonresident may reinstate up to 24 months after the expiration date through the NIPR Gateway on payment of the same two fees; a nonresident who waits longer must apply for licence reissuance.
  3. The resident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date by proving that during the applicable continuing education term the producer met the CE requirements in 191-Chapter 11 and by paying a reinstatement fee and a licence renewal fee; a resident who fails to apply within 12 months must apply for a new licence. The nonresident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date by submitting a request through the NIPR Gateway and paying a reinstatement fee and a licence renewal fee; a nonresident who fails to apply within 12 months, or who fails to update the address, must apply for licence reissuance. ✓
  4. The resident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date by proving continuing education compliance for the applicable term and paying a reinstatement fee and a licence renewal fee; a resident who fails to apply within 12 months must apply for licence reissuance under rule 191-10.10. The nonresident may reinstate up to 12 months after the expiration date through the NIPR Gateway on payment of the same two fees; a nonresident who waits longer must apply for a new licence.

Why: Rule IAC 191-10.9(1) provides that A RESIDENT PRODUCER MAY REINSTATE AN EXPIRED LICENSE UP TO 12 MONTHS AFTER THE LICENSE EXPIRATION DATE BY PROVING THAT DURING THE APPLICABLE CONTINUING EDUCATION (CE) TERM THE PRODUCER MET THE CE REQUIREMENTS FOUND IN 191-CHAPTER 11 AND BY PAYING A REINSTATEMENT FEE AND A LICENSE RENEWAL FEE. A RESIDENT PRODUCER WHO FAILS TO APPLY FOR LICENSE REINSTATEMENT WITHIN 12 MONTHS OF THE LICENSE EXPIRATION DATE MUST APPLY FOR A NEW LICENSE. The continuing education proof is the heart of the subrule: the statute gives the twelve months and the reinstatement fee, but it is the rule that makes a resident prove CE compliance for the applicable term before the licence comes back, which is exactly what the answer requiring no proof of continuing education denies. Rule IAC 191-10.9(2) gives the nonresident route: A NONRESIDENT PRODUCER MAY REINSTATE AN EXPIRED LICENSE UP TO 12 MONTHS AFTER THE EXPIRATION DATE BY SUBMITTING A REQUEST THROUGH THE NIPR GATEWAY AND BY PAYING A REINSTATEMENT FEE AND A LICENSE RENEWAL FEE. A NONRESIDENT PRODUCER WHO FAILS TO APPLY FOR A LICENSE REINSTATEMENT WITHIN 12 MONTHS OF THE LICENSE EXPIRATION DATE OR FAILS TO UPDATE THE NONRESIDENT PRODUCER'S ADDRESS PURSUANT TO SUBRULE 10.12(3) MUST APPLY FOR LICENSE REISSUANCE. Note the asymmetry, because it is easy to get wrong, as the answer sending both late applicants to a new licence and the answer reversing the two routes both do: the RESIDENT who is too late applies for A NEW LICENCE, and the NONRESIDENT who is too late applies for REISSUANCE - and the nonresident can also fall into reissuance simply by failing to keep the address current. No CE proof is required of the nonresident, because 10.6(1) makes renewal turn on HOME STATE continuing education requirements. Twelve months, not twenty-four, which is the substitution made by the answer giving 24 months. That an expired licence may be reinstated within twelve months of the due date of the renewal fee without a further examination comes from Iowa Code 522B.6; the rule adds the machinery around it.

A person generally becomes eligible for Medicare at:

  1. Any age, as long as they have private health insurance
  2. Age 70, once delayed retirement credits stop accruing
  3. Age 62, the earliest age for Social Security retirement benefits
  4. Age 65, or earlier after 24 months of Social Security disability ✓

Why: Eligibility begins at 65, or earlier for those receiving Social Security disability for 24 months, or with ESRD/ALS.

Under Iowa Code 522B.16A, what records must an Iowa producer keep, for how long, and on what terms may the commissioner see them?

  1. Usual and customary records of the producer's transactions, kept at the producer's place of business and open to the commissioner or the commissioner's representative at any hour on demand, including records prepared in anticipation of litigation and privileged records; kept for three years after each transaction.
  2. Usual and customary records of the producer's transactions, kept at the producer's place of business or at any other place the producer notifies to the commissioner, and open during regular business hours; kept for a minimum of five years after completion of a transaction.
  3. Usual and customary records of the producer's transactions, kept at the producer's place of business and open to the commissioner during regular business hours, but not records prepared in anticipation of litigation or privileged under chapter 622; kept for a minimum of three years after completion of a transaction. ✓
  4. Only records of premiums received and remitted, kept at the producer's place of business and open to the commissioner during regular business hours; kept for as long as the producer holds a licence and for three years after it is surrendered.

Why: Iowa Code 522B.16A(1) imposes A CONTINUING DUTY AND OBLIGATION TO KEEP, AT THE INSURANCE PRODUCER'S PLACE OF BUSINESS, USUAL AND CUSTOMARY RECORDS PERTAINING TO TRANSACTIONS UNDERTAKEN BY THE INSURANCE PRODUCER. Those records must be KEPT AVAILABLE AND OPEN FOR INSPECTION BY THE COMMISSIONER OR THE COMMISSIONER'S REPRESENTATIVE AT ANY TIME DURING REGULAR BUSINESS HOURS - so the access is broad but it is bounded by the working day, and it is bounded again by the proviso that the commissioner IS NOT ENTITLED TO INSPECT ANY RECORDS PREPARED IN ANTICIPATION OF LITIGATION OR THAT ARE SUBJECT TO ANY PRIVILEGE RECOGNIZED IN CHAPTER 622. The retention period is a floor: SUCH RECORDS SHALL BE MAINTAINED FOR A MINIMUM OF THREE YEARS FOLLOWING THE COMPLETION OF AN INSURANCE TRANSACTION, measured from the transaction and not from the life of the licence. By 522B.16A(2), a producer WHO WILLFULLY FAILS TO COMPLY WITH THIS SECTION COMMITS A VIOLATION OF THIS CHAPTER AND IS SUBJECT TO SANCTIONS UNDER SECTION 522B.11.

Policy dividends paid on a participating life policy become taxable only when:

  1. The insured reaches the age of fifty-nine and one-half
  2. Cumulative dividends received exceed the total premiums paid ✓
  3. The dividends are used to purchase paid-up additional insurance
  4. The policy is first issued and the initial dividend is declared

Why: Dividends are treated as a return of premium and are not taxable until cumulative dividends exceed the policyowner's cost basis (premiums paid).

A withdrawal from a nonqualified deferred annuity is taxed:

  1. Principal first, with no tax until basis is gone
  2. Gain first (LIFO), as ordinary income ✓
  3. Only when the contract is fully surrendered
  4. At long-term capital-gains rates entirely

Why: Nonqualified annuity withdrawals come out earnings-first (LIFO) and are taxed as ordinary income (plus a possible penalty before 59½).

Under a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer:

  1. Owns the policy and keeps all of the cash value for corporate purposes
  2. Pays a bonus equal to the premium, which the employee owns and is taxed on ✓
  3. Borrows against the executive's personal policy to fund operations
  4. Defers the executive's salary into a nonqualified retirement account

Why: The employer pays a deductible bonus equal to the premium; the employee owns the policy and reports the bonus as taxable income.

A disability policy has a 14-day elimination period and a $200 weekly benefit. If the insured is disabled for 10 weeks, the total paid is:

  1. $1,600 ✓
  2. $2,000
  3. $1,400
  4. $1,800

Why: The first 2 weeks (14-day elimination) pay nothing; 8 weeks × $200 = $1,600.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) primarily:

  1. Sets and enforces nationwide insurance premium rates
  2. Directly licenses every insurance producer in the United States
  3. Develops model laws and standards that states may choose to adopt ✓
  4. Pays claims when an insurance company becomes insolvent

Why: The NAIC is a coordinating body of state regulators that drafts model laws and promotes uniformity; it has no direct regulatory authority of its own.

An Iowa agent is selling an individual sickness policy to a client who will drop her existing accident and sickness cover to pay for it. The same insurer separately sells accident only policies and single premium nonrenewable policies by mail. What does IAC 191-36.8 require, and of which sales?

  1. Application forms shall include a question designed to elicit information as to whether the insurance to be issued is intended to replace any other accident and sickness insurance presently in force, and a supplementary application or other form signed by the applicant may be used. On determining that a sale will involve replacement, an insurer other than a direct response insurer, or its agent, shall furnish the applicant the prescribed notice prior to issuance or delivery of the policy, one copy retained by the applicant and a signed copy retained by the insurer. A direct response insurer shall deliver its own form of notice upon issuance of the policy, that notice telling the applicant the new policy provides 30 days within which the applicant may decide without cost whether to keep it. The notice is required in the solicitation of every accident and sickness policy, including accident only and single premium nonrenewable policies.
  2. Application forms shall include a question designed to elicit information as to whether the insurance to be issued is intended to replace any other accident and sickness insurance presently in force, and a supplementary application or other form signed by the applicant may be used. On determining that a sale will involve replacement, an insurer other than a direct response insurer, or its agent, shall furnish the applicant the prescribed notice prior to issuance or delivery of the policy; one copy is retained by the applicant and an additional copy signed by the applicant is retained by the insurer. A direct response insurer shall deliver its own form of notice upon issuance of the policy, that notice telling the applicant the new policy provides 30 days within which the applicant may decide without cost whether to keep it. In no event is such a notice required in the solicitation of accident only and single premium nonrenewable policies. ✓
  3. Application forms shall include a question designed to elicit information as to whether the insurance to be issued is intended to replace any other accident and sickness insurance presently in force. On determining that a sale will involve replacement, an insurer other than a direct response insurer, or its agent, shall furnish the applicant the prescribed notice prior to issuance or delivery of the policy, one copy retained by the applicant and a signed copy retained by the insurer. A direct response insurer must also furnish its notice before the policy is issued, the timing being the same whatever the channel of distribution; that notice tells the applicant the new policy provides 30 days within which to decide without cost whether to keep it. In no event is such a notice required in the solicitation of accident only and single premium nonrenewable policies.
  4. Application forms shall include a question designed to elicit whether the insurance to be issued is intended to replace any other accident and sickness insurance presently in force. On determining that a sale will involve replacement, an insurer other than a direct response insurer, or its agent, shall furnish the prescribed notice prior to issuance or delivery of the policy. A direct response insurer delivers its own form of notice upon issuance, that notice telling the applicant the new policy provides ten days within which the applicant may decide without cost whether to keep it. In no event is such a notice required in the solicitation of accident only and single premium nonrenewable policies.

Why: IAC 191-36.8 is the accident and sickness counterpart of the life replacement machinery in IAC 191 chapter 16, and it is much shorter because it does only two things: it makes the insurer ASK, and it makes the insurer WARN. Subrule 36.8(1): APPLICATION FORMS SHALL INCLUDE A QUESTION DESIGNED TO ELICIT INFORMATION AS TO WHETHER THE INSURANCE TO BE ISSUED IS INTENDED TO REPLACE ANY OTHER ACCIDENT AND SICKNESS INSURANCE PRESENTLY IN FORCE, and A SUPPLEMENTARY APPLICATION OR OTHER FORM TO BE SIGNED BY THE APPLICANT CONTAINING SUCH A QUESTION MAY BE USED. Subrule 36.8(2) splits the duty by distribution channel, and the split is what the answer requiring a direct response insurer to give notice before issue collapses. An insurer OTHER THAN A DIRECT RESPONSE INSURER, or its agent, must furnish the notice PRIOR TO ISSUANCE OR DELIVERY OF THE POLICY, with ONE COPY ... RETAINED BY THE APPLICANT AND AN ADDITIONAL COPY SIGNED BY THE APPLICANT ... RETAINED BY THE INSURER. A DIRECT RESPONSE INSURER SHALL DELIVER TO THE APPLICANT UPON ISSUANCE OF THE POLICY the different notice in subrule 36.8(4) - later, because there is no agent at the kitchen table to hand anything over, and the missing warning is made up for by the sentence that appears only in the direct response form: YOUR NEW POLICY PROVIDES 30 DAYS WITHIN WHICH YOU MAY DECIDE WITHOUT COST WHETHER YOU DESIRE TO KEEP THE POLICY. Thirty days there, against the ten days of the ordinary free-look notice required by rule 191-36.7(1)'g' - the answer giving ten days confuses the two. Subrule 36.8(2) closes with the exemption the answer requiring notice for every policy removes: IN NO EVENT, HOWEVER, WILL SUCH A NOTICE BE REQUIRED IN THE SOLICITATION OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF POLICIES: ACCIDENT ONLY AND SINGLE PREMIUM NONRENEWABLE POLICIES. Both of the insurer's mail-order lines in the stem are therefore outside the rule. The prescribed notice itself, in subrule 36.8(3), makes three points and they are the substance of what a replacing producer must get across: HEALTH CONDITIONS WHICH YOU MAY PRESENTLY HAVE (PREEXISTING CONDITIONS) MAY NOT BE IMMEDIATELY OR FULLY COVERED UNDER THE NEW POLICY. THIS COULD RESULT IN DENIAL OR DELAY OF A CLAIM FOR BENEFITS UNDER THE NEW POLICY, WHEREAS A SIMILAR CLAIM MIGHT HAVE BEEN PAYABLE UNDER YOUR PRESENT POLICY; that the applicant MAY WISH TO SECURE THE ADVICE OF YOUR PRESENT INSURER OR ITS AGENT regarding the proposed replacement; and that FAILURE TO INCLUDE ALL MATERIAL MEDICAL INFORMATION ON AN APPLICATION MAY PROVIDE A BASIS FOR THE COMPANY TO DENY ANY FUTURE CLAIMS AND TO REFUND YOUR PREMIUM AS THOUGH YOUR POLICY HAD NEVER BEEN IN FORCE, with the instruction to reread the application before signing. The direct response version carries the same first two points and, where the application is attached to the policy, tells the applicant to check it and WRITE TO THE COMPANY WITHIN 30 DAYS if anything is incorrect, incomplete or omitted.

Besides everything Iowa Code 522B.11 lists, IAC 191-10.20 gives the commissioner further causes for acting against a producer's licence. Which set does the rule add?

  1. Submitting a check returned by a bank without payment or a credit card payment the company does not approve; failing to report any administrative action or criminal prosecution taken against the producer; and acting as a producer through persons not licensed as producers. The rule adds no general cause: an action which shows noncompliance with the chapter but falls outside the specific causes listed is not a ground for licence action, since a producer is entitled to know in advance, and with precision, exactly what conduct will put that producer's licence at risk before any action is taken against it by the commissioner of insurance.
  2. Submitting to the division or to the outside testing service on contract with the division a check returned by a bank without payment, or submitting a payment by credit card which the credit card company does not approve, or cancelling or refusing amounts charged to a credit card by the outside testing service where services were received; failing to report any administrative action or criminal prosecution taken against the producer, or failure to report the termination of a resident producer licence; acting as a producer through persons not licensed as producers; and taking any action to circumvent the spirit of the rules and the Iowa insurance statutes or any other action that shows noncompliance with chapter 522B or the rules. ✓
  3. Submitting a check returned by a bank without payment or a credit card payment the company does not approve; failing to report any administrative action or criminal prosecution taken against the producer, or failure to report the termination of a resident producer licence; acting as a producer through persons not licensed as producers; and taking any action to circumvent the spirit of the rules or the Iowa insurance statutes. On any of those causes the commissioner may revoke the licence, but may not place it on probation or levy a civil penalty, those being remedies which the statute reserves to itself and which the commissioner may impose only on a cause which the statute rather than the rule supplies.
  4. Submitting a check returned by a bank without payment or a credit card payment the company does not approve; failing to report any administrative action or criminal prosecution taken against the producer, or failure to report the termination of a resident producer licence; acting as a producer through persons not licensed as producers; and taking any action to circumvent the spirit of the rules and the Iowa insurance statutes. The rule's causes stand alone: the commissioner acts either on a cause listed in Iowa Code section 522B.11 or on a cause listed in the rule, and may not in any single proceeding at all combine grounds which are drawn from both of those two quite separate sources of the commissioner's own disciplinary authority.

Why: Rule IAC 191-10.20(4) provides that THE COMMISSIONER MAY PLACE ON PROBATION, SUSPEND, REVOKE, OR REFUSE TO ISSUE OR RENEW A PRODUCER'S LICENSE OR MAY LEVY A CIVIL PENALTY, IN ACCORDANCE WITH IOWA CODE SECTION 522B.17 OR ANY COMBINATION OF ACTIONS, FOR ANY ACTION LISTED IN IOWA CODE SECTION 522B.11 AND ANY ONE OR MORE OF THE FOLLOWING CAUSES. Read the opening words carefully, because two distractors turn on them. The commissioner's toolkit is wide - probation, suspension, revocation, refusal to issue or renew, a civil penalty, OR ANY COMBINATION OF ACTIONS - which is what the answer ruling out probation and a civil penalty narrows to revocation alone. And the rule's causes are ADDITIONAL to the statutory list rather than an alternative to it, which is what the answer forbidding the two sources to be combined supposes. The four added causes are: (a) SUBMITTING TO THE DIVISION OR TO THE OUTSIDE TESTING SERVICE ON CONTRACT WITH THE DIVISION A CHECK WHICH IS RETURNED TO THE DIVISION BY A BANK WITHOUT PAYMENT, OR SUBMITTING A PAYMENT TO THE DIVISION BY CREDIT CARD WHICH THE CREDIT CARD COMPANY DOES NOT APPROVE, OR CANCELING OR REFUSING AMOUNTS CHARGED TO A CREDIT CARD BY THE OUTSIDE TESTING SERVICE ON CONTRACT WITH THE DIVISION WHERE SERVICES WERE RECEIVED BY THE PRODUCER; (b) FAILING TO REPORT ANY ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION OR CRIMINAL PROSECUTION TAKEN AGAINST THE PRODUCER OR FAILURE TO REPORT THE TERMINATION OF A RESIDENT PRODUCER LICENSE; (c) ACTING AS A PRODUCER THROUGH PERSONS NOT LICENSED AS PRODUCERS; and (d) TAKING ANY ACTION TO CIRCUMVENT THE SPIRIT OF THESE RULES AND THE IOWA INSURANCE STATUTES OR ANY OTHER ACTION THAT SHOWS NONCOMPLIANCE WITH THE REQUIREMENTS OF IOWA CODE CHAPTER 522B OR THESE RULES. Paragraph (d) is a general cause and it exists, which is what the answer adding no general cause denies. Note how the four connect to the rest of the chapter: (a) is the disciplinary counterpart of the immediate suspension in 10.6(4); (b) picks up the reporting duties in 10.13 and the resident-licence termination in 10.12(4); and (c) is the same concern as the commission rules in 10.14(1) and 10.14(2). Rule 10.4(1)(b) makes having committed an act that is grounds for denial under this subrule a bar to a resident licence in the first place.

An annuitant has a $50,000 cost basis and a $100,000 expected return. Of each $10,000 annual payment, how much is taxable?

  1. $5,000 ✓
  2. $2,500
  3. $10,000
  4. $0

Why: Exclusion ratio = basis ÷ expected return = 50,000/100,000 = 50%. Half of each $10,000 payment ($5,000) is excluded; the other $5,000 is taxable.

A distinguishing feature of adjustable life insurance is that the owner can:

  1. Only ever convert it into a fixed single-premium immediate annuity
  2. Invest the cash value directly in stocks and bonds of their choosing
  3. Receive guaranteed dividends regardless of the insurer's experience
  4. Change the premium, face amount, or coverage period as needs change ✓

Why: Adjustable life lets the owner modify premium, face amount, and protection period, effectively shifting between term and permanent coverage.

An Iowa producer tells an applicant in poor health that she would probably do better with another carrier, and steers a second applicant away from applying at all because of his occupation. The carrier pays the producer a larger flat commission on standard plans sold to healthy applicants, and has declined a third application by telephone without giving reasons. What does Iowa Code 513C.9 provide?

  1. A carrier or an agent shall not encourage or direct individuals to refrain from filing an application, or to seek coverage from another carrier, because of the health status, claims experience, industry, occupation or geographic location of the individuals, subject to the exception for information about the carrier's established geographic service area or restricted network provision. A carrier shall not enter into any arrangement with an agent that provides for or results in the compensation paid for a sale of a basic or standard plan to vary because of health status or permitted rating characteristics, and because of that rule no commission at all is payable on the sale of a basic or standard plan. Denial of an application shall be in writing and shall state the reason or reasons. A violation is an unfair trade practice under chapter 507B.
  2. A carrier or an agent shall not encourage or direct individuals to refrain from filing an application for coverage with the carrier, or to seek coverage from another carrier, because of the health status, claims experience, industry, occupation or geographic location of the individuals; the prohibition is absolute, so an agent may not even tell an applicant about the carrier's established geographic service area or its restricted network provision. A carrier shall not enter into any arrangement with an agent that provides for or results in the compensation paid for a sale of a basic or standard plan to vary because of health status or permitted rating characteristics; but a commission shall be paid on such a sale, and compensation on the basis of percentage of premium is permitted provided the percentage does not vary for those reasons. Denial of an application shall be in writing and shall state the reason or reasons for the denial, and a violation by a carrier or an agent is an unfair trade practice under chapter 507B. A third-party administrator engaged by a carrier to provide administrative, marketing or other services is outside the section, its contract being with the carrier rather than with the applicant.
  3. A carrier or an agent shall not encourage or direct individuals to refrain from filing an application for coverage with the carrier, or to seek coverage from another carrier, because of the health status, claims experience, industry, occupation or geographic location of the individuals, subject to the exception for information about the carrier's established geographic service area or its restricted network provision. A carrier shall not enter into any arrangement with an agent that provides for or results in the compensation paid for a sale of a basic or standard plan to vary because of health status or permitted rating characteristics; a commission shall be paid on such a sale, and percentage-of-premium compensation is permitted. A denial of an application may be communicated in any manner and need not state the reasons, and a violation is an unfair trade practice under chapter 507B.
  4. A carrier or an agent shall not encourage or direct individuals to refrain from filing an application for coverage with the carrier because of the health status, claims experience, industry, occupation, or geographic location of the individuals, nor encourage or direct individuals to seek coverage from another carrier for those reasons - though the first prohibition does not reach information about the carrier's established geographic service area or its restricted network provision. A carrier shall not enter into any arrangement with an agent that provides for, or results in, the compensation paid for a sale of a basic or standard plan to vary because of the health status or permitted rating characteristics of the individual or dependents; but a commission shall be paid on such a sale, and compensation on the basis of percentage of premium is permitted provided the percentage does not vary for those reasons. Denial of an application shall be in writing and shall state the reason or reasons. A violation by a carrier or an agent is an unfair trade practice under chapter 507B, and a third-party administrator engaged to provide administrative, marketing or other services is subject to the section as if it were a carrier. ✓

Why: Iowa Code 513C.9 is the section a producer is most likely to break without meaning to, because both of the practices it forbids look like helpfulness. Subsection 1 prohibits a carrier or an agent from ENCOURAGING OR DIRECTING INDIVIDUALS TO REFRAIN FROM FILING AN APPLICATION FOR COVERAGE WITH THE CARRIER BECAUSE OF THE HEALTH STATUS, CLAIMS EXPERIENCE, INDUSTRY, OCCUPATION, OR GEOGRAPHIC LOCATION OF THE INDIVIDUALS, and from ENCOURAGING OR DIRECTING INDIVIDUALS TO SEEK COVERAGE FROM ANOTHER CARRIER for the same reasons. Both of the producer's acts in the stem are squarely inside: telling an unhealthy applicant she would do better elsewhere is the second limb, and steering a man away because of his occupation is the first. Subsection 2 carves out one thing, and the answer making the prohibition absolute deletes it: subsection 1, paragraph 'a', DOES NOT APPLY WITH RESPECT TO INFORMATION PROVIDED BY A CARRIER OR AN AGENT TO AN INDIVIDUAL REGARDING THE ESTABLISHED GEOGRAPHIC SERVICE AREA OF THE CARRIER OR THE RESTRICTED NETWORK PROVISION OF THE CARRIER. Telling someone the plan will not serve where he lives is information, not steering. Subsection 3 attacks the compensation structure rather than the individual sale: a carrier shall not, DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY, ENTER INTO ANY CONTRACT, AGREEMENT, OR ARRANGEMENT WITH AN AGENT THAT PROVIDES FOR, OR RESULTS IN, THE COMPENSATION PAID TO AN AGENT FOR A SALE OF A BASIC OR STANDARD HEALTH BENEFIT PLAN TO VARY BECAUSE OF THE HEALTH STATUS OR PERMITTED RATING CHARACTERISTICS OF THE INDIVIDUAL OR THE INDIVIDUAL'S DEPENDENTS. RESULTS IN is the operative phrase - a scheme that pays more for healthy lives offends the section whatever it is called, which is what the carrier in the stem has done. Two savings follow, and the answer saying no commission is payable confuses one of them for a prohibition: NOTWITHSTANDING SUBSECTION 3, A COMMISSION SHALL BE PAID TO AN AGENT RELATED TO THE SALE OF A BASIC OR STANDARD HEALTH BENEFIT PLAN UNDER THIS CHAPTER - the section guarantees that these plans are worth selling, precisely so that producers do not quietly stop offering them - and subsection 5 provides that subsection 3 DOES NOT APPLY WITH RESPECT TO THE COMPENSATION PAID TO AN AGENT ON THE BASIS OF PERCENTAGE OF PREMIUM, PROVIDED THAT THE PERCENTAGE SHALL NOT VARY because of health status or other permitted rating characteristics. A percentage that is the same for everyone will naturally pay more on a higher-rated life, and that is not a violation; a different percentage would be. Subsection 6 answers the telephoned refusal and the answer letting a denial be communicated in any manner: DENIAL BY A CARRIER OF AN APPLICATION FOR COVERAGE FROM AN INDIVIDUAL SHALL BE IN WRITING AND SHALL STATE THE REASON OR REASONS FOR THE DENIAL. Subsection 7 supplies the sanction - A VIOLATION OF THIS SECTION BY A CARRIER OR AN AGENT IS AN UNFAIR TRADE PRACTICE UNDER CHAPTER 507B, which carries the commissioner's cease and desist and penalty machinery. Subsection 8 closes the last gap: where a carrier engages a THIRD-PARTY ADMINISTRATOR to provide administrative, marketing or other services related to the offering of individual health benefit plans in this state, THE THIRD-PARTY ADMINISTRATOR IS SUBJECT TO THIS SECTION AS IF IT WERE A CARRIER.

Three further terms in IAC 191 chapter 16 decide what has to be produced and to whom: 'policy summary', 'sales material' and 'direct-response solicitation'. Which statement matches the rules?

  1. A policy summary is a single written statement in the same form for every kind of policy, containing the current death benefit, the annual contract premium, the current cash surrender value, the current dividend, the application of the current dividend and the amount of any outstanding loan, universal life contracts being summarised on that same list rather than on one of their own. Sales material is a sales illustration and any other written, printed or electronically presented information created by the company that is used in the presentation to the policy or contract owner; material a producer has prepared is not the company's sales material and falls outside the definition, which is why the rules elsewhere distinguish between insurer-approved sales material and material prepared individually for a particular prospect. A direct-response solicitation is a solicitation made without the involvement of any producer at all, individually or through a sponsoring or endorsing entity, and made solely through the mails, by telephone, over the Internet or by other mass communication media.
  2. A policy summary for policies other than universal life is a written statement containing, to the extent applicable, the current death benefit, the annual contract premium, the current cash surrender value, the current dividend, the application of the current dividend and the amount of outstanding loan; for universal life policies it is a written statement containing at least the report period dates, the policy value at the end of the previous and current report periods, the amounts credited or debited during the current report period identified by type, the current death benefit on each life covered, the net cash surrender value and outstanding loans. Sales material is a sales illustration and any other written, printed or electronically presented information created, completed or provided by the company or producer that is used in the presentation to the owner. A direct-response solicitation is a solicitation made without the involvement of any producer; a solicitation made through a sponsoring or endorsing entity is not one, because the entity's endorsement is itself a form of personal recommendation to the members it reaches.
  3. A policy summary for policies or contracts other than universal life is a written statement containing, to the extent applicable, current death benefit, annual contract premium, current cash surrender value, current dividend, application of current dividend and amount of outstanding loan; for universal life policies it is a written statement containing at least the report period dates, the policy value at the end of the previous and current report periods, the total amounts credited or debited during the current report period identified by type, the current death benefit on each life covered, the net cash surrender value and the amount of outstanding loans. Sales material is a sales illustration and any other written, printed or electronically presented information created, completed or provided by the company or producer that is used in the presentation to the policy or contract owner. A direct-response solicitation is a solicitation through a sponsoring or endorsing entity or individually solely through mails, telephone, the Internet or other mass communication media. ✓
  4. A policy summary for policies other than universal life is a written statement containing, to the extent applicable, the current death benefit, the annual contract premium, the current cash surrender value, the current dividend, the application of the current dividend and the amount of outstanding loan; for universal life policies it is a written statement containing at least the report period dates, the policy value at the end of the previous and current report periods, the amounts credited or debited during the current report period identified by type, the current death benefit on each life covered, the net cash surrender value and outstanding loans. Sales material means written or printed information only: information presented electronically is not sales material, since the rules require the producer to leave material with the applicant and nothing can be left behind that was only displayed on a screen. A direct-response solicitation is a solicitation through a sponsoring or endorsing entity or individually solely through mails, telephone, the Internet or other mass communication media.

Why: Rule IAC 191-16.22 defines all three. POLICY SUMMARY has TWO forms, not one - and they map exactly onto the two annual report lists in IAC 191-14.10(1): the non-universal list is CURRENT DEATH BENEFIT, ANNUAL CONTRACT PREMIUM, CURRENT CASH SURRENDER VALUE, CURRENT DIVIDEND, APPLICATION OF CURRENT DIVIDEND, AND AMOUNT OF OUTSTANDING LOAN, and the universal life list is the report period dates, the policy value at the end of the previous and current periods, THE TOTAL AMOUNTS THAT HAVE BEEN CREDITED OR DEBITED TO THE POLICY VALUE DURING THE CURRENT REPORT PERIOD, IDENTIFYING EACH BY TYPE, the current death benefit ON EACH LIFE COVERED BY THE POLICY, the net cash surrender value, and outstanding loans. Note the different qualifiers: the first is required TO THE EXTENT APPLICABLE and NEED NOT BE LIMITED TO those items, the second AT LEAST those items. SALES MATERIAL MEANS A SALES ILLUSTRATION AND ANY OTHER WRITTEN, PRINTED OR ELECTRONICALLY PRESENTED INFORMATION CREATED, COMPLETED OR PROVIDED BY THE COMPANY OR PRODUCER THAT IS USED IN THE PRESENTATION TO THE POLICY OR CONTRACT OWNER RELATED TO THE POLICY OR CONTRACT THAT IS PURCHASED. Three verbs - CREATED, COMPLETED OR PROVIDED - and two sources, THE COMPANY OR PRODUCER. The answer confining sales material to company material would take a producer's own hand-drawn comparison outside the rules; the distinction it appeals to is real but does different work, in 16.24(4) and 16.26(3), where the producer must identify PREPRINTED OR ELECTRONICALLY PRESENTED INSURER-APPROVED SALES MATERIALS USED and separately supply COPIES OF ANY INDIVIDUALIZED SALES MATERIALS. The answer confining it to written or printed information drops ELECTRONICALLY PRESENTED, which is expressly there. DIRECT-RESPONSE SOLICITATION MEANS A SOLICITATION THROUGH A SPONSORING OR ENDORSING ENTITY OR INDIVIDUALLY SOLELY THROUGH MAILS, TELEPHONE, THE INTERNET OR OTHER MASS COMMUNICATION MEDIA. The sponsoring-or-endorsing-entity limb is what the answer excluding solicitations through an entity removes; it matters because association and affinity marketing is the commonest form of direct response, and rule 16.28 imposes a distinct set of duties on insurers in that channel.

Under IRC Section 1035, a tax-free exchange is permitted FROM a life insurance policy TO:

  1. Only a bank certificate of deposit held at an insured institution
  2. A mutual fund account invested in the same insurer's stock
  3. An annuity contract ✓
  4. Nothing — life policies can never be exchanged tax-free at all

Why: 1035 allows tax-free exchanges from life to life, life to annuity, and life/annuity to LTC; an annuity may NOT be exchanged into life insurance tax-free.

'Misrepresentation' as an unfair trade practice means:

  1. Returning part of an unearned premium to a policyowner who cancels coverage before the end of the policy period
  2. Making false statements about a policy's terms or benefits to induce action ✓
  3. Recommending the lowest-cost policy an applicant qualifies for after comparing the rates of several insurers
  4. Charging an applicant in poor health a higher premium that reflects the substandard rate class underwriting assigned

Why: Misrepresentation is issuing or circulating untrue statements about the terms, benefits, or nature of a policy.

Two of the prohibitions in IAC 191 chapter 14 turn on technical tests defined in the definitions rule: an illustration must be 'self-supporting' and, except for policies that can never develop nonforfeiture values, must not be 'lapse-supported'. What are those two tests?

  1. A self-supporting illustration is one of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the tenth policy anniversary - or the fifteenth for second-or-later-to-die policies - the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policyowner value available. A lapse-supported illustration is one of a policy form failing that test under a modified persistency rate assumption using the persistency rates underlying the disciplined current scale for the first ten years and 100 percent policy persistency thereafter.
  2. A self-supporting illustration is one of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary - or the twentieth for second-or-later-to-die policies, or upon policy expiration if sooner - the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policyowner value available. A lapse-supported illustration is one of a policy form failing that test under a modified persistency rate assumption using zero policy persistency for the first five years, on the footing that a form which only works if early buyers abandon it is being subsidised by them, and the test therefore strips out the early lapses altogether rather than assuming that everybody who survives the first five years stays for ever.
  3. A self-supporting illustration is one of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, using experience assumptions underlying the currently payable scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policyowner value available. A lapse-supported illustration is one failing that test under a modified persistency rate assumption using the persistency rates underlying the currently payable scale for the first five years and 100 percent policy persistency thereafter.
  4. A self-supporting illustration is one of a policy form for which it can be demonstrated that, using experience assumptions underlying the disciplined current scale, for all illustrated points in time on or after the fifteenth policy anniversary - or the twentieth for second-or-later-to-die policies, or upon policy expiration if sooner - the accumulated value of all policy cash flows equals or exceeds the total policyowner value available. A lapse-supported illustration is one of a policy form failing that test under a modified persistency rate assumption using the persistency rates underlying the disciplined current scale for the first five years and 100 percent policy persistency thereafter. ✓

Why: Rule IAC 191-14.4 defines both tests and they are built one on top of the other, which is why they are keyed together. SELF-SUPPORTING ILLUSTRATION MEANS AN ILLUSTRATION OF A POLICY FORM FOR WHICH IT CAN BE DEMONSTRATED THAT, WHEN USING EXPERIENCE ASSUMPTIONS UNDERLYING THE DISCIPLINED CURRENT SCALE, FOR ALL ILLUSTRATED POINTS IN TIME ON OR AFTER THE FIFTEENTH POLICY ANNIVERSARY OR THE TWENTIETH POLICY ANNIVERSARY FOR SECOND-OR-LATER-TO-DIE POLICIES (OR UPON POLICY EXPIRATION IF SOONER), THE ACCUMULATED VALUE OF ALL POLICY CASH FLOWS EQUALS OR EXCEEDS THE TOTAL POLICYOWNER VALUE AVAILABLE. FOR THIS PURPOSE, POLICYOWNER VALUE WILL INCLUDE CASH SURRENDER VALUES AND ANY OTHER ILLUSTRATED BENEFITS AMOUNTS AVAILABLE AT THE POLICYOWNER'S ELECTION. Fifteen and twenty, not ten and fifteen, and the assumptions are those underlying THE DISCIPLINED CURRENT SCALE, not the currently payable scale - which matters, because the disciplined current scale is the one tied to ACTUAL RECENT HISTORICAL EXPERIENCE. In plain terms the test asks whether the money the form actually takes in will cover what the illustration promises to hand back, from the fifteenth year onwards. LAPSE-SUPPORTED ILLUSTRATION MEANS AN ILLUSTRATION OF A POLICY FORM FAILING THE TEST OF SELF-SUPPORTING AS DEFINED IN THESE RULES, UNDER A MODIFIED PERSISTENCY RATE ASSUMPTION USING PERSISTENCY RATES UNDERLYING THE DISCIPLINED CURRENT SCALE FOR THE FIRST FIVE YEARS AND 100 PERCENT POLICY PERSISTENCY THEREAFTER. The mechanism is the point and the answer assuming zero persistency for five years inverts it: the test does NOT strip out early lapses - it keeps the real persistency rates for five years and then assumes NOBODY EVER LAPSES AGAIN. A form that passes the self-supporting test only because a stream of later policyholders is expected to walk away and forfeit value will fail once that stream is switched off, and that is precisely what a lapse-supported illustration is. Rule 14.6(2) prohibits both: EXCEPT FOR POLICIES THAT CAN NEVER DEVELOP NONFORFEITURE VALUES, USE AN ILLUSTRATION THAT IS 'LAPSE-SUPPORTED'; OR USE AN ILLUSTRATION THAT IS NOT 'SELF-SUPPORTING'.

An applicant classified as a 'preferred' risk:

  1. Is declined for individual coverage and steered to a guaranteed-issue plan
  2. Must buy through an employer group plan, because individual underwriting is closed
  3. Pays the lowest premium because of better-than-average risk factors ✓
  4. Pays a rated premium reflecting poor health or hazardous habits

Why: Preferred risks (e.g., ideal build, nonsmoker) present lower-than-average mortality and qualify for the lowest premiums; standard and substandard pay more.

The grace period in a typical life insurance policy is:

  1. Only available once during the entire life of the policy
  2. Exactly 24 hours from the date the premium first becomes due
  3. About 31 days, during which an overdue premium may still be paid ✓
  4. A full 12 months following any missed premium payment

Why: The grace period (commonly 31 days) keeps coverage in force after a missed premium; a death during it pays the benefit minus the premium owed.

An Iowa insurer notifies the commissioner that it has terminated a producer for a reason set forth in section 522B.11. Under Iowa Code 522B.14, what must the insurer then do about telling the producer?

  1. Within thirty days after making the notification, provide a copy to the producer at the producer's last known address by restricted certified mail as defined in section 618.15, or by any other means of delivery the producer has agreed in writing to accept.
  2. Nothing; where the reason for termination is one set forth in section 522B.11 the notification is confidential, and it is the commissioner rather than the insurer who decides whether to disclose it to the producer.
  3. Within fifteen days after making the notification, mail an ordinary copy to the producer at the producer's last known address, the restricted certified mail requirement applying only where the producer has no known address.
  4. Within fifteen days after making the notification, provide a copy to the producer at the producer's last known address by restricted certified mail as defined in section 618.15, or by overnight delivery using a nationally recognized carrier. ✓

Why: Iowa Code 522B.14(4) has a general rule and a stricter one for cause. Generally, WITHIN FIFTEEN DAYS AFTER MAKING THE NOTIFICATION REQUIRED BY THIS SECTION, THE INSURER SHALL MAIL A COPY OF THE NOTIFICATION TO THE INSURANCE PRODUCER AT THE INSURANCE PRODUCER'S LAST KNOWN ADDRESS. Then: IF THE INSURANCE PRODUCER IS TERMINATED FOR ANY OF THE REASONS SET FORTH IN SECTION 522B.11, THE INSURER SHALL PROVIDE A COPY OF THE NOTIFICATION TO THE INSURANCE PRODUCER AT THE INSURANCE PRODUCER'S LAST KNOWN ADDRESS BY RESTRICTED CERTIFIED MAIL, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 618.15, OR BY OVERNIGHT DELIVERY USING A NATIONALLY RECOGNIZED CARRIER. So the for-cause case gets the fifteen-day period AND the prescribed method of delivery. The answer treating the notification as confidential from the producer inverts the point of the subsection: the material the insurer files is indeed protected from private litigants by 522B.14(7), which makes it a confidential record not subject to subpoena or discovery and not admissible in a private civil action, but the producer who is the subject of it must be sent a copy.

An employee gets married, a HIPAA 'special enrollment' event. The employee may:

  1. Never add a new spouse to an existing plan
  2. Only enroll at the next annual open enrollment period
  3. Enroll only after a 12-month waiting period
  4. Enroll in the group plan outside the normal open enrollment ✓

Why: HIPAA special enrollment lets employees enroll after qualifying life events (marriage, birth, loss of other coverage) without waiting for open enrollment.

A group policyholder that has received group life insurance certificates from the insurer electronically now wants to pass them on to its individual plan members the same way. What must it do to be deemed to comply, and what must it tell the members about paper?

  1. It must take appropriate and necessary measures to ensure that the system results in actual receipt of the transmitted information by participants - by return-receipt electronic mail features, by periodic reviews or surveys to confirm receipt, or by any other method approved by the commissioner; the electronic documents must contain the same content and appear in reasonably the same format as the certificates previously approved by the commissioner; each participant must be given notice, electronically or in writing, of the fact that the certificate will be furnished electronically, of the significance of the certificate, and of the participant's right to request and receive, free of charge, a paper copy of the document; and upon request of any participant it must furnish, free of charge, a paper copy of the certificate that was delivered electronically. ✓
  2. It must take appropriate and necessary measures to ensure that the system results in actual receipt of the transmitted information by participants; the electronic documents must contain the same content and appear in reasonably the same format as the certificates previously approved by the commissioner; each participant must be given notice of the fact that the certificate will be furnished electronically, of the significance of the certificate, of the participant's obligations under the rule, and of the participant's right to request and receive a paper copy; and upon request of any participant it must furnish a paper copy, for which it may make a reasonable charge, the rule requiring the group policyholder to make paper available rather than to bear the expense of it, that expense having been placed on the insurer at the previous link in the chain.
  3. It must take appropriate and necessary measures to ensure that the system results in actual receipt of the transmitted information by participants; the electronic documents must contain the same content and appear in reasonably the same format as the certificates previously approved by the commissioner; and each participant must be given notice, electronically or in writing, of the fact that the certificate will be furnished electronically and of the significance of the certificate. The paper-copy right belongs to the group policyholder as against the insurer and not to the participant as against the group policyholder.
  4. It must obtain the written consent of each participant to electronic delivery before any certificate is delivered that way; the electronic documents must contain the same content and appear in reasonably the same format as the certificates previously approved by the commissioner; and upon request of any participant it must furnish, free of charge, a paper copy of the certificate that was delivered electronically.

Why: Rule IAC 191-30.8(4), ELECTRONIC DELIVERY - GROUP POLICYHOLDERS, mirrors subrule 30.8(3) with two deliberate differences, and both are the point of this item. THE GROUP POLICYHOLDER WILL BE DEEMED TO COMPLY WITH THE REQUIREMENTS OF IOWA CODE SECTION 509.2(7) IF THE GROUP INSURANCE CERTIFICATE IS DELIVERED TO THE INDIVIDUAL PLAN MEMBER ELECTRONICALLY AND IF - four lettered conditions again. Paragraph 'a' gives the same three methods of ensuring actual receipt. Paragraph 'b' is identical to the insurer's. Paragraph 'c' requires notice apprising the participant OF THE FACT THAT THE CERTIFICATE WILL BE FURNISHED ELECTRONICALLY, OF THE SIGNIFICANCE OF THE CERTIFICATE, AND OF THE PARTICIPANT'S RIGHT TO REQUEST AND RECEIVE, FREE OF CHARGE, A PAPER COPY OF THE DOCUMENT. Paragraph 'd': UPON REQUEST OF ANY PARTICIPANT, THE GROUP POLICYHOLDER FURNISHES, FREE OF CHARGE, A PAPER COPY OF THE GROUP INSURANCE CERTIFICATE THAT WAS DELIVERED TO THE PARTICIPANT ELECTRONICALLY. The words FREE OF CHARGE appear twice in this subrule - once in the notice and once in the duty - and not at all in the insurer's subrule. That asymmetry disposes of the answer allowing a reasonable charge, whose reasoning about where the expense sits is exactly backwards: the participant is the person the rule is protecting and is the one who must never pay. The answer giving the paper-copy right only to the group policyholder removes the participant's right altogether. The first asymmetry runs the other way: the insurer's notice must apprise the group policyholder of THE GROUP POLICYHOLDER'S OBLIGATIONS UNDER THIS RULE, and there is no equivalent in this subrule because a participant has no obligations under it - which is what the notice element about the participant's obligations invents. As with the insurer's side, there is no consent requirement anywhere, only notice, so a written consent requirement is an invention. Subrule 30.8(2) fixes the scope of the whole rule: it applies TO ALL INSURANCE COMPANIES HOLDING A CERTIFICATE OF AUTHORITY TO TRANSACT THE BUSINESS OF INSURANCE UNDER THE PROVISIONS OF IOWA CODE CHAPTERS 508 AND 515.

An Iowa health insurer routinely tells claimants that their policies exclude a category of treatment that the policies in fact cover, and routinely leaves letters and telephone messages about pending claims unanswered for long periods. Which of the unfair claim settlement practices listed in Iowa Code 507B.4 does that conduct fall within?

  1. Misrepresenting pertinent facts or insurance policy provisions relating to coverages of issue; and failing to adopt and implement reasonable standards for the prompt investigation of claims arising under insurance policies.
  2. Failing to acknowledge and act reasonably promptly upon communications with respect to claims arising under insurance policies, but not misrepresentation of policy provisions. A misrepresentation about what a policy covers is dealt with by the misrepresentation and false advertising paragraph at the head of the section, which reaches material misrepresenting the benefits, advantages, conditions or terms of any insurance policy, and the claim settlement paragraph is confined to how a claim is handled once the coverage position has been stated, so that the two paragraphs divide between them according to whether the statement was made in selling the policy or in dealing with the claim.
  3. Misrepresenting pertinent facts or insurance policy provisions relating to coverages of issue; and failing to acknowledge and act reasonably promptly upon communications with respect to claims arising under insurance policies. ✓
  4. Misrepresenting pertinent facts or insurance policy provisions relating to coverages of issue; and failing to acknowledge and act reasonably promptly upon communications with respect to claims arising under insurance policies. But neither is engaged here, because both require that the insurer's conduct was directed at compelling the claimant to accept less than the amount to which the claimant was entitled.

Why: Paragraph 'j' of Iowa Code 507B.4(3) lists fifteen unfair claim settlement practices and the first two are the ones in point. Subparagraph (1): MISREPRESENTING PERTINENT FACTS OR INSURANCE POLICY PROVISIONS RELATING TO COVERAGES OF ISSUE. Subparagraph (2): FAILING TO ACKNOWLEDGE AND ACT REASONABLY PROMPTLY UPON COMMUNICATIONS WITH RESPECT TO CLAIMS ARISING UNDER INSURANCE POLICIES. Two verbs in the second - ACKNOWLEDGE and ACT - so an insurer that sends a holding acknowledgement and then does nothing has satisfied half of it and breached the other half. The argument that a coverage misrepresentation belongs only to the misrepresentation paragraph is the interesting one and it is wrong: subparagraph (1) is expressly about misrepresenting policy provisions RELATING TO COVERAGES OF ISSUE, which is a claims-handling context, and the misrepresentation paragraph at the head of the section runs on material MADE, ISSUED OR CIRCULATED - an estimate, illustration, circular, statement, sales presentation, omission or comparison. The two paragraphs overlap rather than divide, and a false coverage position stated to a claimant is squarely inside subparagraph (1). The answer pointing to reasonable investigation standards swaps subparagraph (2) for subparagraph (3), which is about FAILING TO ADOPT AND IMPLEMENT REASONABLE STANDARDS FOR THE PROMPT INVESTIGATION OF CLAIMS - a systems failure rather than a failure to answer the post, and a different practice. The answer saying neither is engaged adds a requirement of coercive purpose that appears nowhere in either subparagraph; several of the fifteen do turn on pressing a claimant towards a smaller settlement, but these two do not. One requirement does govern all fifteen, and the stem is drafted to satisfy it rather than to test it: paragraph 'j' opens by defining the practice as COMMITTING OR PERFORMING WITH SUCH FREQUENCY AS TO INDICATE A GENERAL BUSINESS PRACTICE any of the listed acts, which is why the stem says the insurer does both things ROUTINELY.

Under Iowa Code 505.7, what must be true of each separate inspection and examination duty imposed on the Iowa commissioner?

  1. It must be funded from the general fund of the state through the division's annual appropriation, with the commissioner accounting for all inspection receipts and disbursements as a single combined fund.
  2. It must be funded by an assessment levied in equal amount on every insurer licensed in Iowa, whichever inspection or examination duty actually generated the cost.
  3. It must be fiscally self-sustaining, and receipts and disbursements must be accounted for separately. ✓
  4. It must be funded out of filing fees alone, an examination under chapter 507 being performed at no charge to the company that is examined.

Why: Iowa Code 505.7(2) provides that THE COMMISSIONER SHALL ACCOUNT FOR RECEIPTS AND DISBURSEMENTS ACCORDING TO THE SEPARATE INSPECTION AND EXAMINATION DUTIES IMPOSED UPON THE COMMISSIONER BY THE LAWS OF THIS STATE AND EACH SEPARATE INSPECTION AND EXAMINATION DUTY SHALL BE FISCALLY SELF-SUSTAINING. That principle runs through the rest of the section and out into chapter 507: by 507.8 the cost of an examination IS CHARGED TO AND PAID BY THE COMPANIES EXAMINED, and by 505.7(6)(b) the salaries of the deputy commissioner for supervision and the chief examiner are themselves expenses of examination charged to the companies examined on a proportionate basis. The answer making examinations free to the company is wrong for exactly that reason - in Iowa the examined company pays.

Under a term insurance 're-entry' option, the insured can obtain lower 'select' renewal rates by:

  1. Automatically renewing without any proof of good health
  2. Converting the policy to whole life at the original age
  3. Paying a single lump-sum premium for the entire new term
  4. Providing new evidence of insurability at the end of the term ✓

Why: Re-entry term lets an insured requalify with fresh evidence of insurability for lower select rates; without requalifying, higher rates apply.

Eligibility for Medicaid is based primarily on:

  1. Enrollment in a private health plan
  2. Financial need (limited income and assets) ✓
  3. Reaching age 65 regardless of income
  4. Having paid 40 quarters into the system

Why: Medicaid is a means-tested, joint federal-state program for low-income individuals; eligibility varies by state.