Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately so you can see your weak areas, plus an overall score against the pass mark, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Connecticut exam you need a pass on the Pearson VUE score report — Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark.
The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 175 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
| Delivered by | Pearson VUE |
|---|---|
| Official exam | Property and Casualty Producer (12-CT-04) |
| Questions | 130 scored + 15 pretest (general 100 + 10, Connecticut 30 + 5) |
| Time | 2 hours 30 minutes |
| Passing score | 70%; score report shows pass only, no numeric score |
| Exam fee | $105 (single-line Property 12-CT-19 or Casualty 12-CT-20: $65) |
| Pre-licensing or eligibility | Required: 40 hours for combined Property & Casualty (20 hours for a single line); certificate or waiver letter needed at the test centre |
| Book your exam | wsr.pearsonvue.com/testtaker/signin/SignInPage/CTINS?locale=en_US |
Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Pearson VUE before you book.
Evergreen is a $49 practice question bank, not a pre-licensing course. Here is how it stacks up against the courses and other banks candidates usually consider, including where they are the better choice. See the comparison with Kaplan, ExamFX, XCEL and others.
Connecticut tests through Pearson VUE and offers both shapes. The combined Property and Casualty Producer exam has 100 scored general questions plus 30 scored Connecticut questions (with 15 unscored pretest items); the standalone Property and Casualty exams have 50 general plus 25 Connecticut each. The Connecticut section is nested: 18 questions on statutes common to all lines, 3 pertinent to insurance generally, 4 property-only and 5 casualty-only. Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage anywhere in the candidate handbook, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. This bank covers the Connecticut law plus the national property & casualty content.
You need a pass on the Pearson VUE score report — Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Connecticut General Statutes, Title 38a for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Connecticut bank contains 1145 questions (general insurance plus Connecticut law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 175 questions in all.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 18 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: P&C — General Insurance Concepts, P&C — Insurance Basics, P&C — Dwelling & Homeowners, P&C — Personal & Commercial Auto, P&C — Commercial Property, BOP & Marine, P&C — Commercial General Liability & Specialty, P&C — Workers' Compensation, P&C — Other Lines, Flood & Federal Regulation, Connecticut — Insurance Commissioner & Department, Connecticut — Producer Licensing, Connecticut — Unfair Insurance Practices (CUIPA), Connecticut — Definitions, Authority & Certificate of Authority, Connecticut — Property & Casualty Guaranty Association, Connecticut — Consumer Affairs, Hearings, Penalties & Fraud, Connecticut — Cancellation, Nonrenewal & Binders, Connecticut — Standard Fire Policy, Homeowners & Fire Loss, Connecticut — Automobile Insurance: Minimum Coverages & Financial Responsibility and Connecticut — Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist, Rates & Residual Market. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 29 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Which statement about umbrella defense costs is generally true?
Why: For losses covered by the umbrella but not underlying, the umbrella generally defends after the insured satisfies the SIR.
Inland marine transportation coverage frequently insures property:
Why: Inland marine transportation coverage protects goods in transit over land (and inland waterways), reflecting marine insurance's roots in covering moving property.
Actual cash value is generally calculated as:
Why: ACV is typically replacement cost less depreciation, reflecting the property's depreciated value at the time of loss.
How do CGL aggregate limits reinstate?
Why: Aggregate limits are the most paid during the policy period and reset at each new annual policy term, not after each claim.
38a-841(a)(1)(B) caps what the association owes on a covered claim, then adds two further limits of its own. What are they?
Why: 38a-841(a)(1)(B) provides that the association SHALL PAY THE FULL AMOUNT OF ANY SUCH CLAIM ARISING OUT OF A WORKERS' COMPENSATION POLICY, PROVIDED IN NO EVENT SHALL SAID ASSOCIATION BE OBLIGATED (I) TO ANY CLAIMANT IN AN AMOUNT IN EXCESS OF THE OBLIGATION OF THE INSOLVENT INSURER UNDER THE POLICY FORM OR COVERAGE FROM WHICH THE CLAIM ARISES, OR (II) FOR ANY CLAIM FILED WITH THE ASSOCIATION AFTER THE EXPIRATION OF TWO YEARS FROM THE DATE OF THE DECLARATION OF INSOLVENCY UNLESS SUCH CLAIM AROSE OUT OF A WORKERS' COMPENSATION POLICY AND WAS TIMELY FILED IN ACCORDANCE WITH SECTION 31-294c. Workers' compensation is treated twice over: it escapes the dollar ceiling and it escapes the two-year bar. The association never owes more than the insolvent insurer would have owed.
In a competitive state fund jurisdiction, the state fund:
Why: A competitive state fund operates alongside private insurers; employers may buy WC from the state fund or from private carriers.
How much notice of a hearing under 38a-990(a) must the commissioner give, and what may prompt the hearing?
Why: 38a-990(a): where the commissioner has reason to believe that an insurance institution, agent or insurance-support organization has engaged or is engaging in conduct in this state violating the chapter, or that an insurance-support organization has engaged or is engaging in conduct OUTSIDE this state which has an effect on a resident of this state and violates the sections, the commissioner shall serve a statement of charges and a notice of hearing, the date of which shall not be less than thirty days after the date of service.
'Perils of the sea' in ocean marine refers to:
Why: Perils of the sea are extraordinary, fortuitous events peculiar to the sea, like storms, stranding, collision, and sinking—not the ordinary action of wind and waves.
Transportation expenses coverage under PAP Part D typically reimburses the insured for:
Why: Transportation expenses coverage pays temporary transportation (e.g., rental) costs following a covered Part D loss, subject to per-day and per-occurrence limits.
Supplementary payments in a liability policy typically include:
Why: Supplementary (additional) payments cover items like defense costs, certain bonds, and the insured's expenses incurred assisting the defense, often beyond the limit.
38a-702a(6) defines an INSURANCE PRODUCER. What does the definition turn on?
Why: 38a-702a(6): insurance producer or producer means a person required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit or negotiate insurance. A person appointed by an insurer to act on its behalf is an AGENT under 38a-702a(1).
After a hearing the commissioner finds that a person has violated 38a-816. What monetary penalties may the commissioner order under 38a-817(b)?
Why: 38a-817(b) requires written findings and a cease and desist order, and where the practice violates 38a-816 permits the commissioner to order (1) PAYMENT OF A MONETARY PENALTY OF NOT MORE THAN FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION BUT NOT TO EXCEED AN AGGREGATE PENALTY OF FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS UNLESS THE PERSON KNEW OR REASONABLY SHOULD HAVE KNOWN THAT THE PERSON WAS IN VIOLATION ..., IN WHICH CASE THE PENALTY SHALL BE NOT MORE THAN TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION BUT NOT TO EXCEED AN AGGREGATE PENALTY OF TWO HUNDRED FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS IN ANY SIX-MONTH PERIOD; (2) SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF THE PERSON'S LICENSE IF THE PERSON KNEW OR REASONABLY SHOULD HAVE KNOWN ...; OR (3) RESTITUTION OF ANY SUMS SHOWN TO HAVE BEEN OBTAINED IN VIOLATION. Restitution is discretionary, not mandatory, and the six-month window attaches only to the two hundred fifty thousand dollar aggregate.
Which of the following is generally TRUE about the relationship between the surety and the principal after the surety pays a loss to the obligee?
Why: After paying the obligee, the surety has a right of indemnity/subrogation against the principal, reflecting surety's guarantee nature.
A products liability claim alleges a manufactured part injured a user three years after sale. This is covered under the CGL as:
Why: Injury from a sold product is a products liability claim subject to the Products-Completed Operations Aggregate.
An insured runs a small in-home daycare for several children. The appropriate way to address the liability and incidental property exposure is the:
Why: A home day care endorsement (a form of permitted incidental occupancy/business endorsement) addresses the liability and limited property exposure of running a daycare from the home.
Suitability in insurance sales means a producer should:
Why: Suitability requires that recommendations fit the client's actual needs, financial situation, and objectives rather than the producer's compensation.
The Motor Carrier Act and related federal regulations require interstate motor carriers to maintain:
Why: Federal law sets minimum public liability limits for interstate carriers, which vary by the type and hazard of cargo transported (e.g., higher for hazardous materials).
How long does a named insured's selection of uninsured and underinsured motorist coverage last, under 38a-336(a)(1)(B)?
Why: 38a-336(a)(1)(B) provides that THE INSURED'S SELECTION OF UNINSURED AND UNDERINSURED MOTORIST COVERAGE SHALL APPLY TO ALL SUBSEQUENT RENEWALS OF COVERAGE AND TO ALL POLICIES OR ENDORSEMENTS THAT EXTEND, CHANGE, SUPERSEDE OR REPLACE AN EXISTING POLICY ISSUED TO THE NAMED INSURED, UNLESS CHANGED IN WRITING BY ANY NAMED INSURED. The selection carries forward until it is changed in writing.
What notice of a 38a-9(b) arbitration hearing must the parties have, and what powers support the hearing?
Why: 38a-9(b)(2) provides that PARTIES TO THE DISPUTE SHALL BE PROVIDED WRITTEN NOTICE OF THE HEARING AT LEAST TEN DAYS PRIOR TO THE HEARING DATE, that THE COMMISSIONER MAY ISSUE SUBPOENAS ON BEHALF OF THE ARBITRATOR TO COMPEL THE ATTENDANCE OF WITNESSES AND THE PRODUCTION OF DOCUMENTS, PAPERS AND RECORDS RELEVANT TO THE DISPUTE, that DECISIONS SHALL BE MADE ON THE BASIS OF THE EVIDENCE PRESENTED AT THE ARBITRATION HEARING, and that WHERE THE ARBITRATOR BELIEVES THAT TECHNICAL EXPERTISE IS NECESSARY TO DECIDE A CASE, SUCH ARBITRATOR MAY CONSULT WITH AN INDEPENDENT EXPERT RECOMMENDED BY THE COMMISSIONER. The arbitrator and any expert are PAID BY THE DEPARTMENT ON A PER DISPUTE BASIS AS ESTABLISHED BY THE COMMISSIONER. The subpoena power belongs to the commissioner, exercised for the arbitrator, and the decision rests on what was presented at the hearing.
Besides enforcing the title, 38a-8(a) gives the commissioner one procedural power useful in investigations and hearings. What is it?
Why: 38a-8(a): the commissioner may administer oaths in the discharge of the commissioner's duties. Contempt and enforcement of production orders belong to the Superior Court under 38a-16.
Most Professional Liability/E&O and D&O policies are written on what kind of trigger?
Why: Professional and management liability lines are typically claims-made, with a retroactive date and ERP options.
A physical damage dispute is referred to arbitration under 38a-9(b). What must the insurance company do on being notified of the referral, and what is the effect on the claimant?
Why: 38a-9(b)(1) provides that THE INSURANCE COMPANY SHALL PAY THE CLAIMANT THE UNDISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM UPON WRITTEN NOTIFICATION FROM THE DEPARTMENT THAT THE COMPLAINT HAS BEEN REFERRED TO ARBITRATION. SUCH PAYMENT SHALL NOT AFFECT ANY RIGHT OF THE CLAIMANT TO PURSUE THE DISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM. It is not an accord and satisfaction, and the date of that payment matters later: 38a-9(b)(2) runs the fifteen per cent interest on any award RETROACTIVE TO THE DATE OF PAYMENT FOR THE UNDISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM.
NFIP flood insurance provides which type of loss settlement for personal property (contents)?
Why: Contents under the NFIP are always settled on an actual cash value basis, while only the building under certain conditions may be settled at replacement cost.
Which of the following best states the purpose of the deductible in Section I of a Homeowners policy?
Why: The Section I property deductible has the insured retain a portion of each loss, discouraging small claims and lowering premium; it does not apply to Section II liability.
When two policies cover the same loss and an 'other insurance' clause requires each to pay a share proportional to its limit, this is:
Why: Pro rata sharing divides the loss among insurers in proportion to each policy's limit relative to total coverage.
A coal miner who develops pneumoconiosis (black lung disease) from workplace dust exposure may receive benefits under:
Why: The Black Lung Benefits Act provides compensation to coal miners who are totally disabled by pneumoconiosis (black lung) arising from mine employment.
Under the Dwelling Policy, if no liability supplement is attached, an injured visitor's medical bills are:
Why: The basic Dwelling Policy contains no liability or medical payments coverage; these must be added via the personal liability supplement.
What programme does 38a-8(e) require the commissioner to establish?
Why: 38a-8(e): the commissioner shall establish a program to reduce costs and increase efficiency through the use of electronic methods to transmit documents, including policy form and rate filings, to and from insurers and the Insurance Department.
Which loss would be covered under HO-3 on the dwelling but NOT on personal property, due to the difference in covered perils?
Why: HO-3 covers the dwelling open-peril, so an accidental loss not on the named-perils list is covered for the structure but not for Coverage C personal property, which is named-peril only.
A crew member (seaman) injured aboard a vessel in navigation would most likely pursue a claim under which law?
Why: The Jones Act protects seamen (crew members of vessels in navigation), allowing them to sue their employer for injuries caused by negligence, borrowing FELA's fault-based framework.
Loss of use (transportation expenses) coverage in the PAP for a theft loss typically begins:
Why: For a theft of the covered auto, transportation expense coverage typically begins a set number of hours (e.g., 48) after the theft is reported.
The Watercraft endorsement on a Homeowners policy is generally used to:
Why: The watercraft endorsement extends Section II liability for boats that exceed the size/horsepower thresholds otherwise excluded by the base policy.
Under the CGL Supplementary Payments, the insurer will pay up to how much per day for the insured's loss of earnings while attending a trial at the insurer's request?
Why: Supplementary Payments include up to $250 per day for the insured's actual loss of earnings due to attendance at hearings or trials at the insurer's request.
The Information Page of the Workers Compensation policy is most analogous to which component of other commercial policies?
Why: The Information Page functions like a declarations page, showing the insured, policy period, listed states, classifications, premium basis, and limits for Part Two.
The Motor Carrier Coverage Form is most appropriate for:
Why: The Motor Carrier Coverage Form is tailored for businesses that haul property or passengers for others, addressing trucking-specific exposures.
Homeowners Coverage C contains special limits of liability. The special limit on theft of jewelry, watches, and furs is commonly:
Why: There is a special sublimit (commonly $1,500) for theft of jewelry, watches, and furs under Coverage C; higher amounts require scheduling.
In ocean marine, Freight coverage protects:
Why: Freight insurance covers the shipowner's potential loss of freight income (the money earned for transporting cargo) if a covered loss prevents delivery.
How does R.C.S.A. 38a-782a-1 define a BIENNIUM, and what is a CREDIT HOUR worth?
Why: R.C.S.A. 38a-782a-1(2): biennium means, with respect to each individual producer, the two-year period ending on the expiration date of the producer's insurance license. 38a-782a-1(7): credit hour means a value assigned to a course approved by the commissioner that is equivalent to fifty minutes of classroom instruction.
An insured carries $80,000 on contents valued at $100,000 with an 80% coinsurance clause. A $10,000 partial loss occurs (no deductible). The insurer pays:
Why: Required = 80% × $100,000 = $80,000. Insurance carried equals the requirement, so the full $10,000 loss is paid.
How does 38a-336(e) define an underinsured motor vehicle, and how does that differ from the definition used for conversion coverage in 38a-336a(e)?
Why: 38a-336(e) provides that an UNDERINSURED MOTOR VEHICLE MEANS A MOTOR VEHICLE WITH RESPECT TO WHICH THE SUM OF THE LIMITS OF LIABILITY UNDER ALL BODILY INJURY LIABILITY BONDS AND INSURANCE POLICIES APPLICABLE AT THE TIME OF THE ACCIDENT IS LESS THAN THE APPLICABLE LIMITS OF LIABILITY UNDER THE UNINSURED MOTORIST PORTION OF THE POLICY AGAINST WHICH CLAIM IS MADE. 38a-336a(e) instead provides that for conversion coverage the vehicle is underinsured where THE SUM OF ALL PAYMENTS RECEIVED BY OR ON BEHALF OF THE COVERED PERSON FROM OR ON BEHALF OF THE TORTFEASOR ARE LESS THAN THE FAIR, JUST AND REASONABLE DAMAGES OF THE COVERED PERSON. Limits against limits in one, payments against damages in the other.
An insured damages a friend's mailbox and fence while backing out of a driveway in the covered auto. This is covered under:
Why: Damage to another person's property (mailbox, fence) for which the insured is legally liable is covered under Part A property damage liability.
What advance notice does 38a-343(a) require before cancellation of a motor vehicle policy to which 38a-342 applies, and what are the two shorter periods?
Why: 38a-343(a) makes no notice of cancellation effective unless delivered or sent to the named insured, and any third party designated under 38a-323a, BY REGISTERED MAIL, CERTIFIED MAIL, MAIL EVIDENCED BY A CERTIFICATE OF MAILING OR, IF AGREED ..., BY ELECTRONIC MEANS, AT LEAST FORTY-FIVE DAYS BEFORE THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF CANCELLATION, EXCEPT THAT (1) WHERE CANCELLATION IS FOR NONPAYMENT OF THE FIRST PREMIUM ON A NEW POLICY, AT LEAST FIFTEEN DAYS' NOTICE ... ACCOMPANIED BY THE REASON FOR CANCELLATION SHALL BE GIVEN, AND (2) WHERE CANCELLATION IS FOR NONPAYMENT OF ANY OTHER PREMIUM, AT LEAST TEN DAYS' NOTICE ... SHALL BE GIVEN. For a policy IN EFFECT FOR LESS THAN SIXTY DAYS the same periods apply except that the ten-day group also picks up MATERIAL MISREPRESENTATION. A notice for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy MAY BE RETROACTIVE TO THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF SUCH POLICY, provided the fifteen days were given and the premium was not paid in that period.
38a-358 prohibits declination, cancellation or nonrenewal of private passenger nonfleet automobile insurance on certain bases. Which is prohibited outright?
Why: 38a-358(1) prohibits a decision based ON THE RACE, RELIGION, NATIONALITY OR ETHNICITY OF THE APPLICANT OR NAMED INSURED - flat, with no proviso. Contrast the qualified grounds: (2) SOLELY ON THE LAWFUL OCCUPATION OR PROFESSION, EXCEPT ... ANY INSURER WHICH LIMITS ITS MARKET TO ONE LAWFUL OCCUPATION; (3) ON THE PRINCIPAL LOCATION ... UNLESS SUCH DECISION IS FOR A BUSINESS PURPOSE WHICH IS NOT A MERE PRETEXT FOR UNFAIR DISCRIMINATION; and (4) SOLELY ON THE AGE, SEX, GENDER IDENTITY OR EXPRESSION, MARITAL STATUS OR ERASED CRIMINAL HISTORY RECORD INFORMATION, with a group exception. The word SOLELY and the provisos are what distinguish them.
To add liability protection to a Dwelling Policy, which is typically attached?
Why: Because the Dwelling Policy has no built-in liability, a Personal Liability Supplement is added to provide Coverage L (liability) and Coverage M (medical payments).
In Business Income coverage, the 'period of restoration' begins:
Why: Business income payments are subject to the standard 72-hour waiting period in the ISO form (CP 00 30): although measured from the direct physical loss, coverage does not begin paying until 72 hours after the loss.
Under the PAP, a trailer owned by the named insured is:
Why: Owned trailers are included as covered autos for liability; physical damage on a trailer generally requires it to be scheduled.
38a-336a(a) requires each insurer licensed to write automobile liability insurance in this state to do something about conversion coverage. What, and what must it tell a buyer of a new policy?
Why: 38a-336a(a) requires each such insurer to OFFER, FOR AN ADDITIONAL PREMIUM, UNDERINSURED MOTORIST CONVERSION COVERAGE WITH LIMITS IN ACCORDANCE WITH SECTION 38a-336, and provides that THE PURCHASE OF SUCH ... COVERAGE SHALL BE IN LIEU OF UNDERINSURED MOTORIST COVERAGE PURSUANT TO SECTION 38a-336. For each NEW policy the insurer SHALL DISCLOSE TO AN INSURED AT THE TIME OF SALE OR ISSUANCE THE AVAILABILITY OF, THE PREMIUM COST AND A DESCRIPTION OF UNDERINSURED MOTORIST CONVERSION COVERAGE, and that description must be included IN A CONSPICUOUS MANNER WITH THE INFORMED CONSENT FORM SPECIFIED IN 38a-336(a)(2). In lieu of, not in addition to.
What does 38a-316b require of an insurer writing homeowners cover on a residential dwelling?
Why: 38a-316b requires each insurer that delivers, issues for delivery, renews, amends or endorses a homeowners policy for a residential dwelling to OFFER A PREMIUM DISCOUNT ON ANY SUCH POLICY TO ANY HOMEOWNER WHO SUBMITS TO SUCH INSURER PROOF OF INSTALLATION OF PERMANENT STORM SHUTTERS OR IMPACT-RESISTANT GLASS ON HIS OR HER DWELLING AS A MEANS OF MITIGATING LOSS FROM HURRICANES OR OTHER SEVERE STORMS, and provides that SUCH DISCOUNT SHALL BE BASED ON SOUND ACTUARIAL PRINCIPLES. No fixed percentage is prescribed.
Which Homeowners form provides the narrowest, modified settlement and is limited in covered perils for the dwelling?
Why: HO-8 is the Modified Coverage Form with restricted perils and functional/repair-cost settlement, designed for older homes; it is narrower than HO-2 or HO-3.
Within compensatory damages, payments for tangible, measurable losses such as medical bills and lost wages are called:
Why: Special damages are specific, quantifiable economic losses such as medical expenses and lost income.
Several businesses pool their funds to collectively cover one another's losses without buying commercial insurance. This best illustrates risk:
Why: Risk sharing or pooling spreads the cost of losses among a group of similarly exposed parties.
Because an insurance policy is a contract of adhesion, any ambiguity in its wording is generally:
Why: Since the insurer drafts the contract, ambiguities are construed against the drafter and in favor of the insured.
How is a member insurer's assessment calculated under 38a-841(a)(3), how much notice must it have, and what caps it?
Why: 38a-841(a)(3) requires the association to allocate claims paid and expenses among the three accounts separately and to assess members separately for each account, and provides that THE ASSESSMENTS OF EACH MEMBER INSURER SHALL BE IN THE PROPORTION THAT THE NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS OF SUCH MEMBER INSURER FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SUCH ACCOUNT BEARS TO THE NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS OF ALL MEMBER INSURERS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SUCH ACCOUNT. EACH MEMBER INSURER SHALL BE NOTIFIED OF ITS ASSESSMENT NOT LATER THAN THIRTY DAYS BEFORE IT IS DUE. NO MEMBER INSURER MAY BE ASSESSED IN ANY YEAR ON ANY ACCOUNT AN AMOUNT GREATER THAN TWO PER CENT OF THAT MEMBER INSURER'S NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SAID ACCOUNT. Preceding year, premiums not assets, and two per cent PER ACCOUNT rather than in total. The assessment pays the obligations under 38a-841(a)(1), the expenses of handling covered claims, the cost of examinations under 38a-846 and other authorised expenses.
Dividends paid to the policyholders of a mutual insurer are:
Why: Mutual policy dividends are not guaranteed; they represent a return of unused premium and are generally not taxable.
Which statement about how coverage parts combine in a CPP is correct?
Why: In a package, two or more coverage parts attach to common declarations and common conditions; a single coverage part written alone is monoline.
The policy section that defines the rights and duties of both parties, such as duties after a loss and cancellation, is the:
Why: The conditions section spells out the rules, rights, and duties governing how the policy operates for both insurer and insured.
The Automatic Increase in Insurance (inflation guard) endorsement on a dwelling policy does what?
Why: The inflation guard / automatic increase endorsement raises the dwelling limit at set intervals to help the amount of insurance keep up with rising construction costs.
Pure risk differs from speculative risk in that pure risk involves:
Why: Pure risk presents only the possibility of loss or no loss, with no opportunity for gain, making it the only insurable type of risk.
The Spoilage endorsement primarily covers:
Why: The Spoilage endorsement covers loss to perishable stock from breakdown of refrigeration equipment or off-premises power interruption, depending on options selected.
The HO-3 (Special Form) covers the dwelling and personal property on what basis, respectively?
Why: HO-3 insures the dwelling and other structures on an open-perils basis but covers personal property (Coverage C) on a named-perils (broad form) basis.
The premium basis for workers' compensation insurance is generally expressed as a rate applied to:
Why: WC premium is calculated using rates per $100 of payroll for each job classification, then adjusted by other factors.
Garage coverage (now largely the Auto Dealers Coverage Form) is designed for:
Why: Garage/Auto Dealers coverage addresses the unique liability and physical damage exposures of dealers, repair shops, and service stations, including dealers' inventory.
A limit expressed as 'per occurrence' refers to:
Why: A per-occurrence limit caps the total amount payable for all damages arising out of a single covered event.
In most liability policies, defense costs are:
Why: Defense costs are typically paid in addition to (outside) the policy limits in standard liability forms, though some forms erode limits.
What must the commissioner do after a hearing under 38a-990 where the charge is made out, and what where it is not, under 38a-992?
Why: 38a-992(a): where the commissioner determines that the person charged has engaged in conduct violating the sections, the commissioner shall reduce the findings to writing and issue and serve a copy of the findings with an order to cease and desist. 38a-992(b): where the commissioner determines that it has not, the commissioner shall prepare a written report setting out the findings of fact and conclusions, served on the person charged and on the person, if any, whose rights were allegedly violated.
A clothing store's stock is destroyed by fire. The BPP with the Special Causes of Loss form is in force. Coverage applies because:
Why: Under the open-perils Special form, fire is a covered cause of loss because it is a risk of direct physical loss that is not excluded.
A lender requires flood insurance as a condition of a mortgage because the property is in a Special Flood Hazard Area. This requirement comes from:
Why: Federal law requires lenders regulated or insured by the federal government to require flood insurance on properties located in Special Flood Hazard Areas.
Under the CGL, 'property damage' is defined to include:
Why: Property damage means physical injury to tangible property including resulting loss of use, plus loss of use of undamaged tangible property.
Under the PAP, fire damage to the covered auto while parked in a garage is covered under:
Why: Fire is a peril insured under Other Than Collision (comprehensive) coverage in Part D.
Under TRIA, federal sharing of terrorism losses is triggered only for a 'certified act of terrorism,' which is certified by:
Why: A terrorism event must be certified by the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with designated officials, before TRIA's loss-sharing applies.
The implied warranty of 'no deviation' means:
Why: The warranty against deviation requires the vessel to follow the customary or agreed-upon route; unjustified departure can void coverage.
Which of the following is generally EXCLUDED from a standard Homeowners policy without an endorsement?
Why: Earthquake and flood are standard exclusions; earthquake can be added by endorsement and flood is covered separately through the NFIP.
Which of the following is typically EXCLUDED under an NFIP flood policy?
Why: The NFIP severely limits coverage in basements, generally excluding finished walls, floors, and most personal property below the lowest elevated floor.
Private crop-hail insurance is distinguished from federal MPCI in that crop-hail:
Why: Crop-hail is sold by private insurers and typically covers hail (often with fire) on a per-acre basis, separate from the broad federal MPCI program.
An insured with 50/100/25 split limits injures one person for $80,000. How much does the policy pay for that injured person?
Why: The per-person bodily injury limit is $50,000, so the most payable for one injured person is $50,000 regardless of the per-accident limit.
38a-832 restricts what an insurer may say to a person with a bodily injury or wrongful death claim against its insured. What is forbidden?
Why: 38a-832(a) provides that NO INSURER LICENSED TO TRANSACT BUSINESS IN THIS STATE MAY, ON BEHALF OF ITSELF OR ITS INSURED, SEND OR KNOWINGLY PERMIT TO BE SENT ANY WRITTEN COMMUNICATION OR MAKE ANY ORAL STATEMENT TO ANY PERSON KNOWN OR BELIEVED TO HAVE A CLAIM FOR BODILY INJURY OR WRONGFUL DEATH AGAINST ONE OF ITS INSUREDS THAT AFFIRMATIVELY ADVISES AGAINST THE NEED FOR OR DISCOURAGES THE RETENTION OF AN ATTORNEY.
A 'valued policy law' in some states requires that, for a total loss to real property by a covered peril, the insurer pay:
Why: Where valued policy laws apply, the insurer must pay the full policy face amount on a total loss of real property by a covered peril, regardless of actual value.
Protection and Indemnity (P&I) coverage in ocean marine provides:
Why: P&I provides broad third-party liability protection for shipowners, including bodily injury, illness of crew, damage to cargo, and other liabilities not covered by hull policies.
With auto liability split limits of 50/100/25, the maximum paid for bodily injury to any one person in an accident is:
Why: The first number (50) is the per-person bodily injury limit: $50,000.
A key feature of Coverage C — Medical Payments under the CGL is that it pays:
Why: Medical Payments coverage is a goodwill, no-fault coverage paying medical expenses regardless of the insured's legal liability, within the medical expense limit.